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Daily quiz archive · 14 September 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 14 September 2026

Of this day’s ten questions, 9 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.

Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.

Q1 · Environment · Indian Wildlife Conservation

The conservation status of certain rare species, like the pygmy hog, has seen renewed focus due to successful captive breeding programs. If a mammal species is listed as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List and is also placed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following statements most accurately describes its situation?

  1. AIt is accorded the highest degree of legal protection under Indian law, and its conservation often involves ex-situ methods like captive breeding due to its extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.Correct answer
  2. BIts IUCN 'Critically Endangered' status makes any harm to it a non-bailable offence in India, automatically triggering the highest penalties under national law.
  3. CIts protection is primarily managed through in-situ conservation within Biosphere Reserves, as this is the mandated approach for all Schedule I species.
  4. DThe species is legally owned by the government, and its trade is permitted under a strict quota system regulated by Schedule IV of the amended Wildlife (Protection) Act.

Why this answer

The correct option accurately combines the implications of both classifications. Being in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, grants the species the highest degree of legal protection in India, making activities like hunting and trade subject to severe penalties. The 'Critically Endangered' status by IUCN indicates an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild, which is why intensive conservation measures like ex-situ captive breeding (as seen with the pygmy hog) are often necessary. The other options are incorrect. The IUCN Red List is a scientific inventory and is not legally binding in India; legal penalties are determined by the WPA 1972. Protection for such species is not exclusively in-situ or limited to Biosphere Reserves (which are not notified under the WPA). Finally, while the government does have ownership over such animals under the Act, trade of Schedule I species is generally prohibited, not regulated via a quota system in a lower schedule.

The static concept

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (Schedules) and IUCN Red List categories, including the distinction between in-situ and ex-situ conservation methods.

From the news: Assam CM highlights ‘big comeback’ of ‘small hog’

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q2 · Polity · Directive Principles

Recent political discourse has renewed focus on the implementation of both a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and a National Register of Citizens (NRC). Which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes the constitutional basis and legislative authority for their implementation?

  1. ABoth the UCC and the NRC are subjects under the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws on them.
  2. BThe responsibility for creating a National Register of Citizens is vested with State Governments, while the Uniform Civil Code can only be enacted by Parliament.
  3. CImplementation of a UCC by any state requires a prior constitutional amendment to make Article 44 justiciable, whereas the NRC is implemented under the existing Citizenship Act.
  4. DWhile states can legislate on matters of personal law to enact a UCC based on a Directive Principle, the subject of citizenship, including the NRC, falls exclusively within the legislative competence of the Parliament.Correct answer

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately separates the legislative powers. The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in Article 44, a Directive Principle. The power to legislate on personal law matters (marriage, divorce, inheritance) falls under Entry 5 of the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule, allowing both states (like Uttarakhand) and the Parliament to make laws. In contrast, 'Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens' is Entry 17 of the Union List, granting exclusive law-making power to the Parliament. Therefore, the NRC, which is a register of citizens, is governed by central law (Citizenship Act, 1955) and is a Union subject. The other options are incorrect as they misattribute these subjects to the wrong lists or impose non-existent constitutional requirements.

The static concept

Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 44) and the Seventh Schedule (Division of legislative powers between Union and States).

From the news: UCC in all 21 NDA-ruled States by 2029: Amit Shah

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q3 · International Relations · India–South Asia Relations

Recent BRICS summits, including the 18th Summit culminating in the New Delhi Declaration, have highlighted India's evolving foreign policy priorities. Which of the following most accurately describes India's primary strategic objective within the BRICS framework as emphasized in this context?

  1. AAdvocating for a comprehensive reform of global governance, particularly the UN Security Council, to ensure greater representation and an amplified voice for the Global South.Correct answer
  2. BEstablishing a common BRICS currency as the principal mechanism to counteract the impact of unilateral economic sanctions imposed by non-member states.
  3. CObtaining a formal and binding endorsement from all BRICS members for India's permanent membership in the UN Security Council, superseding other multilateral frameworks.
  4. DPrioritizing the finalization of the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) as the central agenda item for the grouping's security cooperation.

Why this answer

The most accurate description of India's primary objective is advocating for reformed global governance. The 2026 New Delhi Declaration explicitly reiterated the BRICS commitment to reforming the UN, including the Security Council, to increase the representation of developing countries and amplify the voice of the Global South. The option regarding a common BRICS currency overstates the current consensus; while de-dollarization is discussed, a common currency is not the agreed principal mechanism. The option about a binding UNSC endorsement is incorrect; the declaration noted support from Russia and China for the 'aspirations' of India and Brazil, which is not a formal binding commitment from all members. While India champions the CCIT, it was not the central theme of the 18th Summit, which focused more on multilateral reform and Global South issues.

The static concept

BRICS: Objectives, structure, and significance as a platform for emerging economies and its role in shaping global governance and India's foreign policy.

From the news: Building consensus: on the 18th BRICS Summit, the New Delhi Declaration

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q4 · Internal Security · Security Forces Organization & Operations

With reference to the internal security situation and related administrative measures in India's North-Eastern Region, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Despite a significant overall improvement in the security situation in the North-Eastern Region since 2014, the state of Manipur has recently accounted for a majority of violent incidents in the region.
  2. 2.Following resolutions by its State Legislative Assembly, the process of updating the National Register of Citizens (NRC) has been formally initiated in Manipur with 1951 as the base year.
  3. 3.The power to legislate on matters of citizenship, including the creation of a National Register of Citizens, is exclusively vested with the Parliament of India as per the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
  4. 4.The Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) is the nodal central ministry for coordinating security operations and peace talks with insurgent groups in the region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DNone of the above

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct; while the overall security situation in the North-East has improved significantly since 2014, recent data shows Manipur accounts for over 75% of violent incidents, making it the current epicentre of conflict. Statement 3 is also correct; Citizenship falls under Entry 17 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule, granting Parliament exclusive legislative power. Statement 2 is incorrect; while Manipur's assembly has passed resolutions urging for an NRC update with 1951 as the base year, the process requires Union Government approval and has not been formally initiated. Statement 4 is incorrect; the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of DoNER, is the nodal agency for managing internal security, including counter-insurgency operations and peace talks.

The static concept

Internal Security Challenges in North-East India: Insurgency, ethnic conflicts, border management, and the role of central agencies.

From the news: Gunmen kill 4 Kuki-Zo civilians in Manipur

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q5 · Social Issues · Maternal & Child Health

Recent enforcement drives against child labour have brought the provisions of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, into focus. Consider the following pairs:

  1. 1.Definition of 'Adolescent' — A person who has completed 14 years but not 18 years of age.
  2. 2.Prohibition for 'Child' (below 14) — Employment prohibited only in hazardous occupations and processes.
  3. 3.Penalty for first offence — Imprisonment up to six months or a fine up to ₹10,000, or both.
  4. 4.Enforcing Authority — Exclusively the Central Government for all establishments.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pairCorrect answer
  2. BOnly two pairs
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

Only the first pair is correctly matched. 1. **Pair 1 is correct:** The Act defines an 'adolescent' as a person who has completed 14 years of age but has not completed 18 years of age. 2. **Pair 2 is incorrect:** The 2016 amendment to the Act prohibits the employment of children (below 14 years) in *all* occupations and processes, not just hazardous ones. The exception is for family enterprises or the entertainment industry under specific conditions. Prohibition only in hazardous occupations applies to adolescents (14-18 years). 3. **Pair 3 is incorrect:** The penalty for a first offence for an employer is imprisonment for a term between six months and two years, or a fine between ₹20,000 and ₹50,000, or both. 4. **Pair 4 is incorrect:** The Act is primarily enforced by the State Government. The Central Government is the enforcing authority only for specific sectors like railway administration, major ports, mines, and oil fields.

The static concept

Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, and its interaction with Article 24 of the Constitution.

From the news: 529 child labourers rescued in Bengaluru; 105 cases registered

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q6 · Economy · External Sector

Recent volatility in global energy markets highlights India's vulnerability to oil price shocks. In this context, consider the following statements regarding the macroeconomic impacts of such shocks on India:

  1. 1.A sustained increase in global crude oil prices directly contributes to the widening of India's Current Account Deficit (CAD).
  2. 2.An external oil price shock primarily manifests as cost-push inflation, which is reflected more immediately and with a higher weightage in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) compared to the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
  3. 3.To counter the resultant depreciation of the Rupee, the Reserve Bank of India's primary and most direct tool is to increase the policy repo rate to attract foreign capital inflows.
  4. 4.India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) are maintained to cover the nation's oil import requirements for a period of 90 days, in line with the mandate for all International Energy Agency (IEA) member countries.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, making 'Only two' the right answer. Statement 1 is correct: India imports over 85% of its crude oil requirements. A price rise significantly increases the import bill, which is a major component of the Current Account, thus widening the Current Account Deficit (CAD). Statement 2 is correct: Higher oil prices increase input costs for production and transportation, leading to cost-push inflation. This impact is reflected more immediately and strongly in the WPI, where the 'Fuel & Power' basket has a higher weightage (~13%) compared to the 'Fuel & Light' basket in the CPI (~7%). Statement 3 is incorrect: The RBI's primary and most direct tool to manage currency depreciation is intervention in the forex market (selling US dollars). While raising the repo rate can attract capital inflows, its main purpose is to manage domestic inflation and growth, not as a direct currency stabilization tool. Statement 4 is incorrect: India is an Associate Member of the IEA, not a full member, so the 90-day mandate for reserves does not apply. Moreover, India's current SPR capacity, combined with commercial stocks, provides a cover significantly less than 90 days of net imports.

The static concept

Impact of external sector shocks (specifically commodity price volatility) on a country's Balance of Payments, inflation dynamics, exchange rate management, and energy security.

From the news: Saudi pipeline outage threatens loss of 4% of global oil supply

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q7 · International Relations · UN & Global Governance

Recent discussions on the efficacy of the United Nations have highlighted the long-standing issue of Security Council reform. In this context, consider the following groups and their stated positions:

  1. 1.G4 Nations — Proposes expansion of only the non-permanent member category with provision for immediate re-election.
  2. 2.Uniting for Consensus (UfC) — Advocates for six new permanent seats but without individual veto power.
  3. 3.African Union — Demands at least two permanent seats with full veto powers and five non-permanent seats.
  4. 4.L.69 Group — Seeks comprehensive reform including expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pair
  2. BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

Two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrect. The G4 Nations (Brazil, Germany, India, Japan) advocate for expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories of the UNSC. The proposal to expand only the non-permanent category is characteristic of the Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group. Pair 2 is incorrect. The Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group, led by countries like Italy and Pakistan, fundamentally opposes the creation of any new permanent seats. They advocate for an increase only in the number of non-permanent seats. Pair 3 is correct. The African Union's common position is encapsulated in the Ezulwini Consensus and the Sirte Declaration, which demands at least two permanent seats for African nations with all the privileges of permanent membership, including the right to veto, and five non-permanent seats. Pair 4 is correct. The L.69 Group is a large coalition of developing countries from Africa, Latin America, the Caribbean, and Asia-Pacific that advocates for comprehensive UNSC reform, including the expansion of both permanent and non-permanent seats to make the Council more representative and effective.

The static concept

UN Security Council Reform: Proposals by various interest groups (G4, Uniting for Consensus, L.69, African Union) and the politics of veto power.

From the news: The Security Council is paralysed, but the UN is not broken, says Guterres

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q8 · Social Issues · Public Health & Immunization

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) represents a strategic initiative to fill critical gaps in public health infrastructure, extending beyond primary care to include critical care and diagnostics at the district level.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The experience during the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted that India's health system was predominantly focused on curative care, with significant deficiencies in disease surveillance, public health laboratory networks, and critical care capacity.

  1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)Correct answer
  2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
  4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

Why this answer

Both statements are individually true, and the Reason provides the direct context for the Assertion. The COVID-19 pandemic exposed severe gaps in India's public health infrastructure, particularly in surveillance, diagnostics, and critical care, as stated in (R). The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), launched in October 2021, was a direct policy response to these identified weaknesses. Its objective, as correctly described in (A), is to systematically create a robust public health infrastructure—from block-level labs to district critical care units—precisely to address the deficiencies that the pandemic made apparent. Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

The static concept

Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) and the strategic shift towards resilient and comprehensive public health systems in India.

From the news: Nadda highlights need for a resilient healthcare system

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q9 · International Relations · G20, BRICS, Development Finance

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): India actively utilizes the BRICS platform to pursue its strategic interests, including enhancing defence cooperation and strengthening its leadership role in the Global South, consistent with its foreign policy of multi-alignment.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The foundational principles of BRICS, such as non-interference in internal affairs and the shared objective of promoting a multipolar international order, create a conducive environment for member states to pursue their individual strategic autonomies.

  1. ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of ACorrect answer
  2. BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. CA is true but R is false
  4. DA is false but R is true

Why this answer

Both statements are correct, and the Reason provides the correct explanation for the Assertion. Assertion (A) is true as India consistently uses platforms like BRICS and SCO, alongside the Quad, to navigate complex geopolitical landscapes, which is the essence of its multi-alignment policy. The focus on defence and Global South issues within BRICS is a clear example. Reason (R) is also true; BRICS is not a military alliance and emphasizes sovereignty, non-interference, and a multipolar world. This principled framework is precisely what allows member states with divergent interests (like India and China) to cooperate on areas of mutual concern while maintaining their strategic autonomy. Therefore, the nature of the BRICS framework (R) enables and explains India's ability to pursue its specific strategic goals (A) within the grouping.

The static concept

India's Foreign Policy: Multi-alignment, Strategic Autonomy, and Engagement with Plurilateral Groupings (BRICS).

From the news: Modi’s bilateral meetings on BRICS sidelines put defence, security cooperation in focus

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.