Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 13 September 2026

Recent directives to child rights commissions have highlighted the importance of legal frameworks for child protection. In this context, which of the following most accurately describes the definition of a 'child' under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012?

Why this answer

The correct definition of a 'child' under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, is 'any person below the age of 18 years'. This is specified in Section 2(1)(d) of the Act and is gender-neutral. The option suggesting the age of 16 is incorrect. The option distinguishing between males and females confuses the POCSO Act's definition with other laws, such as those concerning the legal age of marriage. A fundamental principle of the POCSO Act is that consent from a person below 18 is legally invalid, making the option that mentions consent conceptually flawed and incorrect.

The static concept

Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 — Key provisions, definitions, and institutional mechanisms for child protection.

Recent legislative proposals in the U.S. have renewed focus on sanctions related to transactions with Russia. In this context, which of the following statements most accurately describes the framework of the Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes CAATSA's scope. It is a US law that imposes secondary sanctions, meaning it targets third-party entities (like India) for conducting 'significant transactions' with Russia's defense or intelligence sectors. The statement about crude oil and gas is incorrect; CAATSA's focus is on defense and intelligence, while energy sanctions are part of newer, separate legislative proposals. The statement regarding India receiving a formal waiver for the S-400 purchase is also incorrect; the US has so far exercised 'silent non-determination', refraining from making a finding that a sanctionable transaction occurred, which is distinct from a formal waiver. Lastly, the term 'significant transaction' is not defined by a fixed monetary value; its determination is left to the U.S. State Department based on a range of qualitative factors.

The static concept

Unilateral Sanctions — U.S. CAATSA (Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act) and its extraterritorial implications for India's foreign policy and defense procurement.

The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is often cited as a cornerstone of India's digital financial infrastructure. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the governance and regulatory framework for UPI in India?

Why this answer

The statement that UPI is developed by NPCI but regulated by RBI is the most accurate. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an initiative of the RBI and Indian Banks' Association, is the operator of UPI. However, the supreme regulatory authority for all payment systems in India, including UPI, is the Reserve Bank of India, which derives its power from the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Other options misattribute these distinct roles. The RBI did not develop UPI, nor does the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) regulate it. NPCI is not a self-regulating body in this context; it operates under RBI's oversight.

The static concept

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and the regulatory framework under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, distinguishing the roles of RBI and NPCI.

Recent infrastructure initiatives have highlighted the importance of regional air connectivity. In this context, which of the following statements most accurately describes a key feature of the Regional Connectivity Scheme (UDAN)?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes the funding mechanism of the UDAN scheme. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) is provided to airlines to cover operational losses on underserved routes. This VGF is financed not from the general budget directly, but from a Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF), which is generated by a levy on certain other domestic flights. The statement about the fare cap is incorrect; the ₹2,500 cap is indicative, indexed to inflation, and applies only to a specified percentage of seats (not all) on a flight of about one hour. The statement on implementation is also incorrect; the Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the implementing agency, not the Ministry of Civil Aviation directly. Lastly, while route exclusivity is for three years, under the Modified UDAN scheme, VGF support has been extended to five years with a tapered model.

The static concept

Infrastructure development policy, specifically regional connectivity schemes like UDAN, and their funding mechanisms like Viability Gap Funding (VGF).

With reference to the BRICS grouping and its operational framework, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The final joint declarations issued at BRICS summits are legally binding treaties that create autonomous obligations for member states.
2. 2.All decisions within the BRICS framework, including the adoption of summit declarations, are made based on the principle of consensus among all members.
3. 3.BRICS operates through a permanent secretariat headquartered in Shanghai, which coordinates the group's activities across its three pillars of cooperation.
4. 4.Following its recent expansion, the BRICS grouping now includes all major oil-producing nations from the Middle East, such as Saudi Arabia, Iran, the UAE, and Qatar.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 2 is correct as BRICS has always operated on the principle of consensus, meaning any member can block a decision. Statement 1 is incorrect; BRICS declarations are political statements of intent, not legally binding treaties. Statement 3 is incorrect; BRICS does not have a permanent secretariat. Aspirants often confuse this with the New Development Bank (NDB), which is headquartered in Shanghai. Statement 4 is incorrect; while several Middle Eastern oil producers like Saudi Arabia, Iran, and the UAE have joined, Qatar is not a member, so the claim that 'all major' ones have joined is false.

The static concept

BRICS cooperation framework — consensus building and geopolitical diplomacy in multilateral forums.

The Preamble to the Constitution of India encapsulates ideals drawn from various historical and constitutional sources. Consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity — French Revolution
2. 2.Ideal of Justice (Social, Economic, and Political) — Russian Revolution
3. 3.Concept of 'Republic' — Irish Constitution
4. 4.Date of adoption mentioned (26th November 1949) — Cabinet Mission Plan

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Two pairs are correctly matched. The first pair is correct; the ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in the Preamble are inspired by the French Revolution (1789). The second pair is also correct; the ideal of Justice—social, economic, and political—is drawn from the Russian Revolution (1917). The third pair is incorrect; while India borrowed the Directive Principles of State Policy from the Irish Constitution, the concept of a 'Republic' (an elected head of state) is primarily inspired by the French constitutional tradition. The fourth pair is incorrect; the date of adoption, 26th November 1949, is the actual date the Constituent Assembly completed its work and adopted the Constitution. It was not a date prescribed by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, which only laid out the framework for the formation of the Assembly.

The static concept

Preamble of the Constitution: Its text, keywords, significance, and sources of inspiration.

With reference to the institutional framework for pollution control in India, which has been in focus due to scrutiny of state-level monitoring, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. 2.State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were first established under the provisions of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
3. 3.The CPCB is mandated to coordinate the activities of the SPCBs and provide them with technical assistance and guidance.
4. 4.The Chairperson of the CPCB is required to be a person who is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, making 'Only two' the right answer. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct as State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were indeed established under the Water Act of 1974. Statement 3 is also correct; a key function of the CPCB is to coordinate the activities of SPCBs and provide technical guidance, as laid out in the Water Act. Statement 4 is incorrect as this judicial qualification is for the Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT), not the CPCB. The CPCB Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government and is typically an expert or a bureaucrat.

The static concept

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs): Statutory bodies established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, forming the core of India's environmental regulatory machinery.

Recent directives to statutory bodies like the Delhi Commission for Women have highlighted the specific mandates of various commissions in India. With reference to these institutional mechanisms, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Election Commission of India — Resolving disputes related to splits and mergers of recognised political parties
2. 2.National Commission for Women — Providing legal aid to impoverished women through its own dedicated statutory fund
3. 3.National Human Rights Commission — Imposing punitive damages on public servants found guilty of human rights violations
4. 4.Central Vigilance Commission — Initiating criminal prosecution against corrupt officials without prior government sanction

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only one pair is correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct. The Election Commission of India, under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, has the quasi-judicial authority to decide disputes among rival factions of a recognised political party staking claim to its name and symbol. Pair 2 is incorrect. The primary mandate for providing free legal aid lies with the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The National Commission for Women (NCW) does not have its own dedicated fund for providing direct legal aid. Pair 3 is incorrect. The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are mainly recommendatory. It cannot impose punitive damages or punish violators of human rights. It can only recommend action to the concerned government or authority. Pair 4 is incorrect. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an advisory body. It does not have the power to initiate criminal prosecution. It advises the central government, and the requirement of prior sanction for prosecution of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act is a critical legal step.

The static concept

Powers, functions, and responsibilities of various constitutional and statutory bodies (ECI, NCW, NHRC, CVC).

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements, but R does not explain A. Assertion (A) is correct; CERT-In is the national nodal agency for cyber security incidents, established under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended in 2008). Reason (R) is also correct; the rise of powerful, dual-use AI models presents a significant and complex new challenge to cybersecurity, enabling advanced threats. However, R is not the correct explanation for A because the establishment of CERT-In predates the current era of advanced AI threats. The need for a centralized national cyber incident response body was recognized due to foundational internet-era threats like hacking and malware, not specifically because of AI.

The static concept

Information Technology Act, 2000, and the role of the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) in India's cybersecurity architecture.

Why this answer

Assertion (A) is true. The success of UPI is fundamentally linked to its design as an open, interoperable platform. It acts as a digital public good upon which various private players (banks, payment apps) can innovate and compete, fostering a vibrant ecosystem. This is the core principle of Digital Public Infrastructure. However, Reason (R) is false. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is not a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI. It is a 'Not for Profit' company under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013, founded as an initiative of the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA). Its ownership is broad-based among a consortium of major banks, not concentrated solely with the RBI.

The static concept

Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), specifically the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), its architecture, and the role and structure of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).