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Daily quiz archive · 15 September 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 15 September 2026

Of this day’s ten questions, 9 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.

Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.

Q1 · International Relations · India's Bilateral Relations, Treaties & Military

In the context of India's international trade negotiations, which of the following statements best describes a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?

  1. AA broad-based agreement covering trade in goods, services, investment, and intellectual property, aiming for deeper economic integration than a standard Free Trade Agreement.Correct answer
  2. BAn agreement focused exclusively on eliminating tariffs on trade in goods, without covering services or investment.
  3. CA strategic alliance primarily focused on military cooperation and joint defence production, with minor economic components.
  4. DA specific customs union agreement that establishes a common external tariff for all member countries against non-members.

Why this answer

The correct answer accurately describes a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) as a wide-ranging trade pact. Unlike a traditional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) which primarily focuses on reducing tariffs on goods, a CEPA is much broader. It includes provisions for trade in services, investment protection and promotion, intellectual property rights, and regulatory cooperation. The option describing an agreement focused 'exclusively on eliminating tariffs on trade in goods' defines a basic FTA. The option mentioning a 'strategic alliance' confuses an economic agreement with a military pact. The option defining a 'customs union' describes a different and more integrated type of trade bloc, which is not what a CEPA is.

The static concept

International Trade Agreements: Differentiating between Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreements (CEPAs).

From the news: India, Canada begin next round of talks on proposed trade pact: Official

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q2 · Economy · Industry & Industrial Policy

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the constitutional and administrative framework governing the allocation of land for industrial purposes in India?

  1. AState governments hold primary authority, as 'land' is a State List subject, and they often use specialized agencies like State Industrial Development Corporations to manage allocation based on their respective industrial policies.Correct answer
  2. BThe central government, through the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, directly controls the allotment of all industrial land to ensure uniform national industrial growth, with states playing only a consultative role.
  3. CLand acquisition for all private industrial projects is governed exclusively by the LARR Act, 2013, which mandates a Social Impact Assessment but exempts such projects from requiring landowner consent.
  4. DThe allocation of land for industrial use in urban areas is primarily regulated by the Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976, which remains the principal legislation uniformly enforced across all states.

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately reflects India's federal structure. 'Land' (Entry 18) is a subject on the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, giving state governments the primary legislative and executive power. States formulate their own industrial policies and often establish statutory bodies like State Industrial Development Corporations (e.g., MIDC in Maharashtra) to acquire, develop, and allot land for industrial use. The other options are incorrect. The central government does not directly control industrial land allocation; its role is primarily in policy formulation and large-scale projects, not day-to-day allotment. The LARR Act, 2013, requires consent from 80% of landowners for private projects, not an exemption. The Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976, was repealed by a central act in 1999, and most states have since adopted the repeal.

The static concept

Federalism in India: Division of powers concerning land, industry, and resource allocation as per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

From the news: Maharashtra govt. orders probe into land transfer to Premier Automobiles over six decades ago

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q3 · Environment · Climate Change & Greenhouse Gas Management

Recent developments in the climate policies of major economies have highlighted the importance of national commitments. In this context, which one of the following statements regarding India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement is correct?

  1. AIndia has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2060 as part of its long-term strategy announced at COP26.
  2. BThe implementation of India's NDCs is primarily overseen by the Ministry of Power, under the overarching mandate of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
  3. CIndia's first NDC, submitted in 2015, aimed to achieve 50 percent of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based resources by 2030.
  4. DIn its updated NDC of 2022, India committed to reducing the Emissions Intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030, from the 2005 level.Correct answer

Why this answer

The correct statement is the one describing India's updated 2022 NDC commitment to reduce GDP Emissions Intensity by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels. The statement about Net Zero is incorrect; India's target is 2070, not 2060. The nodal ministry for climate policy is the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), not the Ministry of Power. The statement regarding the first NDC from 2015 is also incorrect; the 50% non-fossil fuel capacity target is from the 2022 *update*, while the original 2015 target was 40%.

The static concept

India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC).

From the news: U.S. set to axe climate pollution limits for power plants: reports

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q4 · Economy · National Income

In the context of India's major price indices and their role in economic policy, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. AThe Reserve Bank of India's Monetary Policy Committee uses the WPI as the headline inflation measure for its flexible inflation targeting framework.
  2. BThe most recent revision updated the base year for the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to 2022-23 and for the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) to 2024.
  3. CThe revised WPI basket now includes a services component, specifically in logistics and trade, to better reflect the economy's structure.
  4. DThe Wholesale Price Index (WPI) calculation excludes indirect taxes to remove the impact of fiscal policy, aligning it more closely with a Producer Price Index.Correct answer

Why this answer

The correct statement is that the WPI calculation excludes indirect taxes. This has been the practice since the 2011-12 series to better reflect prices at the producer level, removing the impact of fiscal policy changes. The RBI uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI), not the WPI, for its inflation targeting mandate under the RBI Act. The base years mentioned in the other option are swapped; the correct new base year for WPI is 2022-23 and for CPI is 2024. Lastly, the WPI basket exclusively tracks goods and does not include services, which is a key feature distinguishing it from the CPI.

The static concept

Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI) — components, calculation, base year revisions, and implications for economic policy.

From the news: ‘PM says sab changa si, but sab mehenga si’ Congress on WPI inflation

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q5 · Polity · Judiciary

With reference to judicial accountability and the power of judicial review in India, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The power of judicial review is considered a part of the basic structure of the Constitution, making it unamendable by Parliament.
  2. 2.The office of the Chief Justice of India was brought under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, by a constitutional amendment.
  3. 3.The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity is detailed entirely within Article 124 of the Constitution.
  4. 4.The Supreme Court has adopted the 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life', which acts as an ethical guide for judges but is not a legally enforceable statute.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), established that judicial review is a part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution and cannot be taken away by a constitutional amendment. Statement 4 is also correct. The 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life' (1997) is a non-statutory code of ethics adopted by the Supreme Court itself and is not legally enforceable. Statement 2 is incorrect; the office of the CJI was brought under the RTI Act by a Supreme Court judgment in 2019, not by a constitutional amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 124 lays down the grounds for removal, the detailed procedure for investigation and proof is regulated by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, an Act of Parliament. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

The static concept

Judicial Review as a basic structure feature and mechanisms for Judicial Accountability (Removal process, RTI, ethical codes).

From the news: CJI says judiciary cannot earn public trust by shielding itself from scrutiny

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q6 · International Relations · India–South Asia Relations

Recent diplomatic exchanges have highlighted the complex interplay between India's bilateral relationship with Bangladesh and its role in regional forums. In this context, consider the following pairs:

  1. 1.Maitree Super Thermal Power Plant — A joint venture primarily for electricity generation
  2. 2.India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline — Infrastructure for transporting natural gas from India
  3. 3.BIMSTEC Permanent Secretariat — Located in New Delhi, India
  4. 4.Bangladesh's Status in BRICS framework — Member of the New Development Bank (NDB)

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pair
  2. BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. The first pair is correct; the Maitree Super Thermal Power Plant is a key India-Bangladesh joint venture for power generation. The fourth pair is also correct; while Bangladesh is not a member of the BRICS grouping, it joined the BRICS-founded New Development Bank (NDB) in 2021. The second pair is incorrect as the Friendship Pipeline transports High-Speed Diesel, not natural gas. The third pair is incorrect because the Permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh, not New Delhi.

The static concept

India-Bangladesh bilateral relations: connectivity projects, energy cooperation, and the role of regional groupings like BIMSTEC.

From the news: Want to 'reset' ties with India, should be done through bilateral discussions: Bangladesh

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q7 · Economy · External Sector

Recent geopolitical tensions in key maritime chokepoints have highlighted the volatility of global crude oil markets. In this context, consider the following pairs of crude oil benchmarks or baskets and their associated geographical origins or pricing points:

  1. 1.Brent Crude — North Sea
  2. 2.West Texas Intermediate (WTI) — Gulf of Mexico
  3. 3.Dubai Crude — Strait of Hormuz
  4. 4.OPEC Reference Basket — Vienna, Austria

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pair
  2. BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

There are two correctly matched pairs. 1. Brent Crude is correctly matched with the North Sea, as it originates from oil fields there and serves as a major global benchmark. 2. West Texas Intermediate (WTI) is incorrectly matched. While it is a US crude, its primary pricing point is Cushing, Oklahoma, a landlocked hub, not the Gulf of Mexico. 3. Dubai Crude is incorrectly matched. It is a benchmark for Middle Eastern crude exported to Asia, but it is not specifically priced at or named for the Strait of Hormuz, though the oil passes through it. 4. The OPEC Reference Basket is correctly matched with Vienna, Austria, as this is the location of OPEC's headquarters, from where the organization manages its affairs, including the calculation of this benchmark.

The static concept

Global crude oil benchmarks (Brent, WTI, Dubai Crude) and the structure of international energy markets (OPEC).

From the news: Oil prices jump more than $3 after new strikes on Saudi, Strait of Hormuz

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q8 · Polity · Fundamental Rights

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution is not an absolute right.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, empower the government to issue takedown notices to social media intermediaries for content that violates specified grounds.

  1. ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of ACorrect answer
  3. CA is true but R is false
  4. DA is false but R is true

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements. Assertion (A) is correct because the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression is subject to 'reasonable restrictions' enumerated in Article 19(2) of the Constitution. Reason (R) is also correct as the IT Rules, 2021, do provide a mechanism for the government to issue takedown notices. However, R is not the correct explanation of A. The constitutional basis for the right not being absolute is Article 19(2) itself. The IT Rules are a form of subordinate legislation that operationalises this power to restrict; they are an effect or an instrument of the principle, not the source of the principle itself.

The static concept

Article 19(1)(a) - Freedom of Speech and Expression, and the 'reasonable restrictions' under Article 19(2).

From the news: Meta restricts access to viral AI video of Keralam CM dancing over power cuts

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q9 · International Relations · Geopolitical Conflicts & Regional Crises

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): Saudi Arabia's military intervention in Yemen, initiated as 'Operation Decisive Storm' in 2015, was carried out under a direct mandate from the United Nations Security Council authorizing the use of force.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The Houthi movement's seizure of the Yemeni capital, Sana'a, in late 2014 led to the ousting of the internationally recognized government, prompting regional powers to intervene.

  1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. CA is true, but R is false
  4. DA is false, but R is trueCorrect answer

Why this answer

Assertion (A) is false, while Reason (R) is true. The Saudi-led intervention, 'Operation Decisive Storm', was launched in March 2015 at the request of Yemen's internationally recognized President Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi. However, it did not have a direct authorizing mandate from the UN Security Council under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, which is the legal basis for authorizing such use of force. While various UNSC resolutions addressed the conflict, none explicitly authorized the Saudi-led military intervention. Reason (R) is true; it accurately describes the primary trigger for the intervention. The Houthi forces took control of Sana'a in late 2014, forcing President Hadi to flee and leading to the collapse of the state, which prompted the Saudi-led coalition's response.

The static concept

International Law: UN Security Council (UNSC) Mandates under Chapter VII, Use of Force, and the Doctrine of Intervention in Geopolitical Conflicts.

From the news: Saudi crown prince, U.S. CENTCOM chief discuss developments after Houthi escalation

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.