Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 6 September 2026

With the challenge of Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) being a key focus of India's internal security apparatus, which one of the following is designated as the lead force for conducting anti-Naxal operations?

Why this answer

The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is the designated lead force for anti-Naxal operations in India. It also has a specialised unit called Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) for this purpose. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a specialised investigative body that probes terror-related cases, including those involving LWE, but it is not the lead operational force. The Border Security Force (BSF) and Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) are primarily tasked with guarding the Pakistan/Bangladesh and China borders, respectively.

The static concept

Mandates and roles of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and central investigative agencies in managing internal security threats like Left-Wing Extremism.

In the context of the relationship between the judiciary, legislature, and executive in India, which one of the following statements most accurately describes the power of judicial review concerning executive actions and legislative enactments?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately reflects the scope of judicial review in India. Judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, allowing the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. If a law or order is found to be arbitrary (violating Article 14) or infringing upon any fundamental right, it can be declared unconstitutional and void. The option suggesting that a law nullifying a judgment is immune from review is incorrect; such a law must also stand the test of constitutionality. The claim that executive policy on appointments is completely immune is also false, as such actions can be reviewed for arbitrariness or mala fides. Lastly, a law becomes effective after presidential assent, not after a separate approval from the Supreme Court.

The static concept

Judicial Review as a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution, empowering the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders (Articles 13, 32, 136, 142, 226).

The use of preventive detention laws like the National Security Act (NSA), 1980, often brings the balance between state security and individual liberty into focus. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the constitutional and legal position regarding detention under the NSA?

Why this answer

The correct statement is that the legality of a detention order under the NSA can be challenged via a writ of habeas corpus. Judicial review is a fundamental aspect of the Indian Constitution. The other options are incorrect. The procedural safeguards for ordinary arrests, like production before a magistrate within 24 hours, do not apply to preventive detention as per Article 22(3)(b). The provision of the 44th Amendment to reduce the detention period without an Advisory Board's opinion to two months was never implemented; the limit remains three months. Lastly, the NSA is a preventive law, not a punitive one; it aims to prevent future prejudicial acts, not to punish for past ones.

The static concept

Article 22: Protection Against Arrest and Detention, and the provisions for Preventive Detention laws like the National Security Act (NSA), 1980.

Which one of the following statements most accurately describes a key power or characteristic of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?

Why this answer

The statement that the NCSC has all the powers of a civil court while investigating a matter or inquiring into a complaint is correct. This is explicitly granted under Article 338(8) of the Constitution. The other options are incorrect. The Commission's recommendations are advisory, not binding, although consultation with it is mandatory for governments on major policy matters. The NCSC was separated from the NCST by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, not the 65th Amendment which created a joint commission. Crucially, the Supreme Court has clarified that despite having powers of a civil court for investigation, the NCSC lacks adjudicatory powers and cannot issue binding verdicts.

The static concept

Article 338 of the Constitution: Powers, functions, and evolution of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

With reference to social security schemes for the elderly in India, which have gained prominence due to ongoing demographic shifts, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) — Ministry of Rural Development
2. 2.Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) — Implemented by Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India (ALIMCO)
3. 3.Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) — Provides a uniform central share of ₹500 per month for all beneficiaries
4. 4.Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY (as expanded) — Free health cover for all senior citizens aged 65 and above

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. - Pair 1 is correct: The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is administered by the Ministry of Rural Development, a commonly confused fact as many welfare schemes fall under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. - Pair 2 is correct: The Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY), which provides assistive devices, is implemented by ALIMCO, a PSU under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. - Pair 3 is incorrect: The central share under IGNOAPS is not uniform. It is ₹200 per month for beneficiaries aged 60-79 years and ₹500 per month for those aged 80 years and above. - Pair 4 is incorrect: The expansion of Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY provides free health cover to all senior citizens aged 70 years and above, not 65.

The static concept

Social Security and Welfare Schemes for the Elderly in the context of India's Demographic Transition.

Recent instances of administrative accountability for public health failures have highlighted the constitutional framework underpinning the Right to Health in India. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Right to Health is explicitly enumerated as a fundamental right within the text of Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. 2.Article 41, being a Directive Principle of State Policy, imposes an unconditional and legally enforceable obligation on the State to provide public assistance in cases of sickness.
3. 3.The Supreme Court, in the Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal case, held that the failure of government hospitals to provide timely medical treatment constitutes a violation of Article 21.
4. 4.The principle that every doctor has a professional obligation to extend immediate medical aid to preserve life, irrespective of procedural formalities, was laid down by the Supreme Court in the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India case.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 3 is the only correct statement. It accurately reflects the Supreme Court's ruling in the Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity case (1996), which affirmed that failure to provide timely medical treatment by government hospitals violates Article 21. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Right to Health is not explicitly mentioned in Article 21; it has been read into it through judicial interpretation. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 41 is a Directive Principle, which is not legally enforceable. Furthermore, the obligation is conditional upon the State's 'economic capacity and development,' not unconditional. Statement 4 is incorrect as the principle of a doctor's duty to provide immediate medical aid was established in the Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) case, not the Maneka Gandhi case.

The static concept

Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and its judicial expansion to include the Right to Health; Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 41); Landmark Supreme Court Judgements.

The recent restoration of a major mandapam at the Meenakshi Amman Temple has brought renewed focus on the distinct features of South Indian temple architectural schools. In this context, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Pallava School — Gopurams that are more prominent and taller than the main Vimana
2. 2.Chola School — Extensive use of soft soapstone allowing for intricate 'lathe-turned' pillars
3. 3.Vijayanagara School — Addition of large, ornate pillared halls known as 'Kalyana Mandapams' for ceremonial purposes
4. 4.Nayak School — Construction of massive 'Thousand-Pillared Mandapams' (Ayirakkal Mandapams) with monolithic sculptures

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrect: Prominent gopurams (gateway towers) that are taller than the main vimana (shrine tower) are a characteristic feature of the later Vijayanagara and Nayak periods. Pallava gopurams were relatively small and subordinate to the main shrine. Pair 2 is incorrect: The use of soft soapstone, which enabled highly intricate carvings and characteristic 'lathe-turned' pillars, is a defining feature of the Hoysala school of architecture, not the Chola school, which primarily used hard granite for its monumental structures. Pair 3 is correct: The construction of ornate Kalyana Mandapams (marriage halls) for celebrating divine wedding ceremonies was a distinct and notable contribution of the Vijayanagara rulers to temple architecture. Pair 4 is correct: The Nayaks, particularly in Madurai, are renowned for constructing massive pillared halls, such as the Ayirakkal Mandapams (thousand-pillared halls), often featuring life-sized sculptures carved from single stones. The Meenakshi Temple is a prime example.

The static concept

Dravidian Temple Architecture: Evolution of distinct features under the Pallava, Chola, Vijayanagara, and Nayak dynasties.

Why this answer

The Assertion (A) is correct. UNGA resolutions, representing the majority of the world's nations, possess considerable moral and political influence. They serve as powerful statements of international opinion and can lead to the development of international law, thus shaping global norms. The recent resolution on cartographic equity is an example of this normative function. However, the Reason (R) is false. Unlike the UN Security Council, whose resolutions under Chapter VII can be legally binding, UNGA resolutions are generally considered recommendations and are not legally binding on member states. The only exceptions are certain resolutions related to the UN's internal functioning, such as budgetary matters.

The static concept

United Nations General Assembly (UNGA): Powers, functions, and the legal nature of its resolutions, contrasted with the UN Security Council (UNSC).

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. Assertion (A) is correct because India has the Indus Waters Treaty (1960) with Pakistan and the Ganga Water Sharing Treaty (1996) with Bangladesh, but no such comprehensive water-sharing treaty exists with China for the Brahmaputra (Yarlung Zangbo). The existing arrangements are limited to Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) for sharing hydrological data during the monsoon season. Reason (R) is also correct. China has not ratified the 1997 UN Watercourses Convention, which codifies principles of equitable and reasonable utilization. Instead, China's state practice of building dams unilaterally reflects the Harmon Doctrine of absolute territorial sovereignty, which posits that a nation has unlimited rights over the water flowing through its territory. This fundamental legal and sovereign stance is the primary reason China avoids entering into a binding, equitable water-sharing treaty, thus explaining the situation described in (A).

The static concept

Transboundary River Water Management: International law principles (e.g., Harmon Doctrine vs. equitable utilization), bilateral treaties, and the geopolitical implications for upper and lower riparian states.