Daily quiz archive · 5 September 2026
Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 5 September 2026
Of this day’s ten questions, 10 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.
Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.
Q1 · Environment · Climate Change & Greenhouse Gas Management
In the context of international efforts to combat climate change, particularly focusing on non-CO2 greenhouse gases, which one of the following statements regarding the Global Methane Pledge is correct?
- AIt is a voluntary commitment to collectively reduce global methane emissions by at least 30 percent from 2020 levels by 2030.Correct answer
- BIndia is a key signatory and has committed to reducing methane emissions from its agricultural sector under this pledge.
- CIt was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) as a legally binding treaty for all UNFCCC members.
- DThe pledge aims for a 50% reduction in methane emissions from 2010 levels by the year 2050.
Why this answer
The correct statement accurately describes the Global Methane Pledge's core objective. It is a voluntary initiative launched at COP26, led by the US and the EU, aiming to collectively cut methane emissions by at least 30% by 2030, compared to 2020 levels. The statement about India being a signatory is incorrect; India has not joined the pledge, citing concerns over its vast agricultural sector. The statement attributing the pledge's launch to UNEP as a binding treaty is also incorrect; it is a voluntary pledge initiated by the US and EU. The statement mentioning a 50% reduction by 2050 misrepresents the actual target, which is 30% by 2030.
The static concept
International Environmental Agreements and India's Climate Policy: Specifically, the Global Methane Pledge and the distinction between CO2 and other potent greenhouse gases.
From the news: Warning on warming: on the UNEP report, Limiting Overshoot
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q2 · Social Issues · Gender Equality & Women's Development
Recent judicial interpretations have clarified the legal framework for maternity benefits in India. In this context, which one of the following statements most accurately reflects the current legal position regarding maternity leave for adoptive mothers?
- AAn adoptive mother is entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave, regardless of the age of the adopted child.Correct answer
- BTo ensure complete parity, adoptive mothers are entitled to the same 26-week maternity leave period as biological mothers.
- CThe right to maternity leave for adoptive mothers is governed by the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, which remains the primary legislation.
- DThe Supreme Court's ruling expanded these benefits by reading them primarily into the Directive Principles of State Policy, specifically Article 42.
Why this answer
The correct statement is that an adoptive mother is entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave, regardless of the child's age. A recent Supreme Court judgment struck down the restrictive clause in Section 60(4) of the Social Security Code, 2020, which previously limited this benefit to mothers adopting a child under three months old. The Court found this age-based discrimination unconstitutional. The statement suggesting a 26-week leave is incorrect; the duration for adoptive mothers is 12 weeks, while it is 26 weeks for biological mothers. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (and its 2017 amendment) has been consolidated into and replaced by the Social Security Code, 2020. Lastly, the Supreme Court's ruling was based on the violation of Fundamental Rights (Article 14 and 21), not the direct enforcement of Directive Principles like Article 42.
The static concept
Maternity Benefits under Indian Law (Social Security Code, 2020) and Judicial Interpretation of Fundamental Rights (Article 14 & 21).
From the news: What did the Supreme Court say about paid maternity leave?
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q3 · Social Issues · Public Health & Immunization
In the context of India's maternal and child health programmes, which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) from the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)?
- AJSSK provides an entitlement to free and cashless services like drugs, diagnostics, and transport for pregnant women and sick infants in public institutions, whereas JSY is a conditional cash transfer scheme to promote institutional delivery.Correct answer
- BJSY was launched to supplement the benefits of JSSK by adding a cash component, building upon JSSK's free service entitlements.
- CWhile JSY targets all pregnant women nationwide without any distinction, JSSK's benefits are restricted only to those in designated Low Performing States (LPS).
- DThe primary role of ASHAs under JSSK is to disburse cash benefits directly to mothers, while under JSY their role is limited to providing post-natal counselling.
Why this answer
The correct statement accurately captures the core distinction between the two schemes. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), launched in 2005, is a centrally sponsored scheme that provides conditional cash assistance to pregnant women for delivering in a health facility. Its primary aim is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional deliveries. In contrast, the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), launched in 2011, focuses on eliminating out-of-pocket expenses. It provides completely free and cashless services to pregnant women, including delivery, C-sections, drugs, diet, and transport, and also provides free treatment for sick infants up to one year of age in public health institutions. Thus, JSSK supplements JSY by ensuring that once a woman reaches the facility, she does not have to pay for services.
The static concept
Maternal and Child Health Programmes under the National Health Mission (NHM), specifically the functional differences between Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK).
From the news: For newborns, the answer is hospital plus home
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q4 · International Relations · Climate Diplomacy & Environmental Agreements
With reference to the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) and its associated financial mechanisms in global climate negotiations, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AThe Paris Agreement reinterprets CBDR-RC by incorporating 'different national circumstances', shifting from a rigid Annex-based differentiation to a more dynamic approach.Correct answer
- BThe World Bank serves as the trustee for the Green Climate Fund (GCF), while the Global Environment Facility (GEF) operates as an independent fund outside the UNFCCC framework.
- CThe Adaptation Fund, established under the Kyoto Protocol, is financed primarily by a share of proceeds from all Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) submitted by developed countries.
- DIndia's official stance, as reflected in its latest Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), has formally relinquished the principle of CBDR-RC to align with the Paris Agreement's universal obligations.
Why this answer
The correct statement is the one identifying the evolution of CBDR-RC under the Paris Agreement. Article 2 of the Paris Agreement states it will be implemented to reflect equity and CBDR-RC 'in the light of different national circumstances', moving beyond the UNFCCC's static Annex-I/Non-Annex-I bifurcation.
The statement about the World Bank is incorrect; it serves as the interim trustee for the Adaptation Fund, not the GCF, and the GEF is an operating entity of the UNFCCC's financial mechanism. The statement on the Adaptation Fund's financing is wrong; its primary funding source is a 2% levy on the Kyoto Protocol's Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) projects, not NDCs. Lastly, the statement about India's stance is false; India consistently and strongly upholds the CBDR-RC principle in all forums, as explicitly mentioned in its updated NDC.
The static concept
UNFCCC Principles: Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) and associated climate finance mechanisms (GCF, GEF, Adaptation Fund).
From the news: Climate change a common challenge, says government on Nepal Minister’s compensation demand
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q5 · International Relations · India–South Asia Relations
With reference to India-Nepal cooperation in disaster management and humanitarian assistance, consider the following statements:
- 1.India and Nepal have a long-standing three-tier bilateral mechanism for cooperation on water resources, which includes flood control and forecasting.
- 2.During major natural disasters in Nepal, primary coordination for international aid, including from India, is channelled through the SAARC Disaster Management Centre.
- 3.Following the 2015 earthquake in Nepal, India launched 'Operation Maitri' to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, involving its armed forces and the NDRF.
- 4.As part of its recent flood relief assistance, India's primary forensic support involved collecting DNA samples from unidentified victims in Nepal and transporting them to Indian laboratories for profiling.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect answer
- COnly three
- DAll four
Why this answer
Only two statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct; India and Nepal have a well-established three-tier bilateral mechanism to cooperate on water resources, including flood management. Statement 3 is also correct; 'Operation Maitri' was the name of India's massive humanitarian and rescue operation following the 2015 Nepal earthquake. Statement 2 is incorrect; while regional bodies like the SAARC Disaster Management Centre exist, immediate and large-scale disaster relief is predominantly coordinated through direct bilateral channels between India and Nepal. Statement 4 is incorrect; India's recent forensic support involved deploying an expert team to assist with DNA analysis *in Nepal* and offering DNA profiling services *in India* for relatives of the missing who reside in India, not transporting victim samples from Nepal to India.
The static concept
India's 'Neighbourhood First' Policy and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) as an instrument of foreign policy, specifically in the India-Nepal context.
From the news: Nepal floods: Centre to offer DNA profiling services for first-degree relatives of missing persons
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q6 · Social Issues · Education Policy — NEP & Curriculum Reform
The recent felicitation of educators with the National Teachers' Awards has brought focus on the frameworks for recognizing teaching excellence in India. In this context, consider the following pairs regarding the award:
- 1.Administering Body — Ministry of Education
- 2.Minimum Service for School Teachers — 10 years
- 3.Age Limit for Higher Education Faculty — 60 years
- 4.Cash Award Component — Rs. 1,00,000
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
- COnly three pairs
- DAll four pairs
Why this answer
Two pairs are correctly matched. The first pair is correct: the Ministry of Education (MoE) is the supervising authority for the National Teachers' Awards. The second pair is also correct: eligibility for school teachers requires a minimum of ten years of regular service. The third pair is incorrect: the age limit for Higher Education faculty is not being above 55 years, not 60 years. The fourth pair is incorrect: the cash award is Rs. 50,000, not Rs. 1,00,000. Therefore, only two pairs are correct.
The static concept
National Awards and Recognitions in the Education Sector, reflecting policy priorities of the Government of India.
From the news: From asteroid hunter to Maths wizard, 82 educators to receive National Teachers’ Awards
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q7 · Economy · Fiscal Policy
Recent reports on state-level mining revenues highlight the sector's fiscal importance. In this context, consider the following statements regarding the regulation and economic contribution of mining in India:
- 1.The royalty rates for major minerals are determined by the respective State Governments, while the rates for minor minerals are set by the Central Government.
- 2.The District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust established in mining-affected districts primarily to finance advanced mineral exploration technologies.
- 3.The mining and quarrying sector's contribution to India's Gross Value Added (GVA) has consistently remained above 5% over the past decade.
- 4.The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, mandated the establishment of District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) in all districts affected by mining operations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly oneCorrect answer
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DNone
Why this answer
Only one statement is correct. The correct statement is the one about the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015 mandating DMFs.
- The statement on royalty rates is incorrect; the roles are reversed. The Central Government determines royalty rates for major minerals (as per the Second Schedule of the MMDR Act, 1957), while State Governments are empowered to make rules for minor minerals, including fixing royalty rates.
- The statement on the DMF's purpose is incorrect. As per Section 9B of the MMDR Act, the primary objective of the DMF is to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations, not to finance exploration.
- The statement on GVA contribution is incorrect. The share of mining and quarrying in India's GVA has been hovering around 2-2.5% in recent years, not consistently above 5%.
- The statement regarding the 2015 amendment is correct. This amendment made it mandatory to establish DMFs in all districts affected by mining.
The static concept
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957: Division of powers between Centre and States, revenue sharing, and welfare mechanisms like the District Mineral Foundation (DMF).
From the news: Mining revenue rises 12.90% to ₹1,287 crore in Andhra Pradesh, says Minister
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q8 · Economy · Economic Reforms (LPG 1991)
Renewed negotiations for comprehensive free trade agreements have brought India's foundational economic reforms of 1991 back into focus. Consider the following pairs of reform committees and their associated recommendations or areas of focus:
- 1.Narasimham Committee (I) — Phasing out of the Directed Credit Programme
- 2.Raja Chelliah Committee — Introduction of tax on services
- 3.C. Rangarajan Committee — Recommendations for full Capital Account Convertibility
- 4.Malhotra Committee — Establishment of Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
- COnly three pairs
- DAll four pairs
Why this answer
There are two correctly matched pairs.
Pair 1 is correct: The first Narasimham Committee on Financial System (1991) recommended phasing out the Directed Credit Programme to improve the financial health and efficiency of banks.
Pair 2 is correct: The Tax Reforms Committee (1991) headed by Raja Chelliah recommended the introduction of a tax on services to widen the tax base and improve the tax-to-GDP ratio. This was subsequently implemented in 1994.
Pair 3 is incorrect: The C. Rangarajan Committee (1993) gave recommendations on the methodology for disinvestment in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). The roadmap for Capital Account Convertibility was laid out by the Tarapore Committee (1997).
Pair 4 is incorrect: The Malhotra Committee (1993) recommended comprehensive reforms in the insurance sector, leading to the opening up for private players. The establishment of Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) to deal with Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) was a key recommendation of the second Narasimham Committee (1998).
The static concept
Economic Reforms of 1991: Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG), and the roles of key reform committees.
From the news: Belgian PM pitches Port of Antwerp-Bruges as India’s trade gateway to Europe
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q9 · Science & Tech · ISRO & Space Missions
Assertion (A): Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicles (GSLV) are primarily designed to place communication and advanced earth observation satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Reason (R): A satellite in a geosynchronous orbit appears to remain stationary from a fixed point on Earth, which is essential for continuous communication links and persistent regional monitoring.
- ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.Correct answer
- BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- CAssertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- DAssertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Why this answer
Both statements are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. The Assertion (A) is correct; GSLV is ISRO's heavy-lift vehicle designed to launch heavier satellites, typically communication satellites and advanced Earth observation satellites like EOS-05, into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The Reason (R) is also correct; the primary advantage of a geosynchronous orbit is that its period matches Earth's rotation, making the satellite appear stationary from the ground (especially in a geostationary orbit, which is a type of geosynchronous orbit). This is vital for applications requiring uninterrupted line-of-sight, like DTH broadcasting, communication, and continuous weather monitoring. The reason explains the assertion because the entire purpose of developing a powerful launcher like GSLV is to achieve this specific high-altitude orbit, which offers the unique advantages described in R.
The static concept
ISRO's Launch Vehicles (GSLV/PSLV) and Satellite Orbits (Geosynchronous/Sun-Synchronous Polar)
From the news: ISRO successfully launches Earth observation satellite EOS-05
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.
Q10 · Polity · Judiciary
Assertion (A): A High Court in India, by virtue of being a 'Court of Record' under Article 215 of the Constitution, possesses the power to punish for contempt of itself, which extends to ensuring compliance with its orders by executive authorities.
Reason (R): The Constitution, under Article 235, vests in the High Court control over the subordinate judiciary, including matters of staffing and infrastructure, which necessitates executive cooperation and action on its directives.
- ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
- BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of ACorrect answer
- CAssertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
- DAssertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Why this answer
Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are factually correct statements. The Assertion correctly states that under Article 215, a High Court is a 'Court of Record' and has the power to punish for contempt of itself. This power is essential for upholding its dignity and authority, and for enforcing its orders. The Reason correctly states that under Article 235, the High Court has administrative control over the subordinate judiciary. However, the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. The High Court's contempt power is inherent to its status as a Court of Record, as granted by Article 215. This power is general and can be used to enforce any of its lawful orders, not just those concerning the subordinate judiciary. The control under Article 235 is a separate, substantive power, while the contempt power under Article 215 is an enforcement mechanism.
The static concept
Article 215 (High Court as a Court of Record) and Article 235 (Control over subordinate courts).
From the news: Kerala High Court warns Chief Secretary Biswanath Sinha of contempt proceedings over clerical posts in district judiciary
The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.