PPrelimo← Home

Daily quiz archive · 10 July 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 10 July 2026

Of this day’s ten questions, 8 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.

Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.

Q1 · International Relations · India–ASEAN & Indo-Pacific Engagement

Which of the following statements best describes India's formal relationship with the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?

  1. AIndia is a full member state of ASEAN and participates in all its decision-making processes.
  2. BIndia is a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN and a member of ASEAN-led forums like the East Asia Summit.Correct answer
  3. CIndia is a member of the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) but holds only observer status in political matters.
  4. DIndia was a founding member of ASEAN in 1967 but later adopted an observer role.

Why this answer

The correct statement is that India is a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN and a member of ASEAN-led forums like the East Asia Summit. India's engagement with ASEAN began as a Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, which was upgraded to a full Dialogue Partnership in 1995 and a Strategic Partnership in 2012. India is not a full member of ASEAN, which is a common misconception; ASEAN membership is restricted to Southeast Asian nations. The option stating India is a member of the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) is incorrect; AFTA is the internal trade agreement for ASEAN members. India has a separate agreement, the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA). The statement that India was a founding member is historically false; ASEAN was founded in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.

The static concept

India's 'Act East' Policy and its engagement with regional forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit (EAS), and the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF).

From the news: India, Australia unveil new defence declaration to deepen Indo-Pacific cooperation

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q2 · Environment · Climate Change & Greenhouse Gas Management

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol?

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol?

  1. AIt is a globally recognized standard-setting partnership, co-convened by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD), to help entities measure and manage their GHG emissions.Correct answer
  2. BIt is a legally binding international treaty under the UNFCCC that mandates specific emission reduction targets for signatory nations.
  3. CIt is a financial mechanism managed by the World Bank to provide grants for climate mitigation projects in developing economies.
  4. DIt is a scientific assessment body under the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) that defines the global warming potential of various gases.

Why this answer

The correct statement describes the GHG Protocol as a partnership between the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). This initiative provides the world's most widely used greenhouse gas accounting standards. The other options are incorrect. The GHG Protocol is a set of standards, not a legally binding treaty like the Kyoto Protocol. It is not a financial mechanism managed by the World Bank, which is a separate function related to climate finance. Finally, while it uses scientific data, it is not an assessment body under the IPCC; its primary role is in accounting and reporting, not fundamental climate science assessment.

The static concept

International frameworks and standards for climate change mitigation and GHG emissions accounting.

From the news: Western Europe records its hottest June as heatwaves surge

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q3 · International Relations · India–Europe & Western Strategic Partnerships

The 'Roadmap 2030', a significant framework frequently mentioned in the context of India's foreign policy, aims to elevate the bilateral relationship into a 'Comprehensive Strategic Partnership'. This roadmap is associated with India's engagement with which of the following?

  1. AThe United KingdomCorrect answer
  2. BThe European Union
  3. CThe United States of America
  4. DFrance

Why this answer

The 'Roadmap 2030 for India-UK future relations' was adopted during a Virtual Summit between the Prime Ministers of both countries in May 2021. Its primary goal is to elevate the bilateral relationship to a 'Comprehensive Strategic Partnership'. The roadmap provides a framework for cooperation across five key pillars: people-to-people ties, trade and prosperity, defence and security, climate action, and health. While India has strategic partnerships with the European Union, the United States, and France, the specific 'Roadmap 2030' framework is exclusive to the India-UK relationship.

The static concept

India's Bilateral Relations with Major Powers: Comprehensive Strategic Partnerships and Framework Agreements.

From the news: Watch: India and Australia Deepen Defence Ties: What It Means for the Indo-Pacific | Above the Fold | 09.07.2026

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q4 · Social Issues · Public Health & Immunization

The Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy marks a significant evolution from India's previous anaemia control programmes. Which of the following statements most accurately captures the core strategic shift embodied by AMB?

  1. AIt adopts a comprehensive 6x6x6 strategy targeting multiple beneficiary groups across the life cycle, integrating both nutritional and non-nutritional interventions.Correct answer
  2. BIt replaces prophylactic supplementation with a universal 'test-and-treat' approach, providing iron supplements only after a clinical diagnosis of anaemia.
  3. CIt shifts the primary focus from pharmaceutical supplementation to mandatory food fortification, especially of rice and salt, through the Public Distribution System.
  4. DIt decentralizes the entire programme's funding and implementation to Panchayati Raj Institutions, moving away from a centrally-sponsored model.

Why this answer

The correct option accurately describes the core of the Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy. The strategy is built on a '6x6x6' framework: targeting six beneficiary groups, using six interventions, and supported by six institutional mechanisms. This represents a life-cycle approach that integrates prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation with other interventions like deworming and addressing non-nutritional causes. The option suggesting a replacement of prophylactic supplementation with 'test-and-treat' is incorrect; AMB uses both approaches concurrently. The claim about shifting focus to food fortification is also misleading, as supplementation remains a key pillar alongside fortification. Lastly, the programme is not fully decentralized to Panchayati Raj Institutions; it remains a centrally-sponsored scheme implemented by state health departments with national guidance.

The static concept

National Health Programmes: Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy under POSHAN Abhiyaan.

From the news: Ebola death toll in Congo reaches 600, as new cases suspected in previously unaffected provinces

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q5 · Environment · Water Pollution & Microplastics

With reference to microplastics as a water pollutant, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.All microplastics in marine environments are secondary pollutants, formed from the degradation of larger plastic items.
  2. 2.They can act as vectors for persistent organic pollutants (POPs), facilitating their transfer up the marine food chain.
  3. 3.The presence of microplastics directly and significantly increases the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of the water.
  4. 4.India has prohibited the manufacture, import, and sale of cosmetic products containing plastic microbeads.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Microplastics are categorized as primary and secondary. Primary microplastics are intentionally manufactured small particles, such as microbeads in cosmetics and plastic pellets (nurdles). Secondary microplastics result from the breakdown of larger plastic items. Therefore, not all are secondary. Statement 2 is correct. The hydrophobic surface of microplastics attracts and concentrates persistent organic pollutants (POPs) from the surrounding water. When marine organisms ingest these plastics, the toxins are transferred to their tissues and biomagnify up the food chain. Statement 3 is incorrect. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter. Plastics are largely synthetic and non-biodegradable, so they do not contribute to BOD. Statement 4 is correct. Under the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2021, and earlier BIS standards, India has banned the use of microbeads in rinse-off cosmetic products.

The static concept

Water Pollution: Sources, Effects, and Control Measures, focusing on emerging pollutants like microplastics.

From the news: IIT Guwahati team finds blue-green algae can remove lead from water

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q6 · Science & Tech · Viral Diseases, Virology & Vaccines

With reference to viral diseases, particularly emerging zoonotic threats like Avian Influenza (H5N1), consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Influenza viruses, including all strains of Avian Influenza, are exclusively RNA viruses and cannot possess DNA as their genetic material.
  2. 2.Zoonotic transmission refers to the transfer of viruses from vertebrate animals to humans, but the reverse transfer from humans to animals is not possible.
  3. 3.Unlike bacteria and fungi, viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot be cultured in any artificial, cell-free synthetic medium.
  4. 4.The primary mechanism of mRNA vaccines, a platform considered for rapid response to pandemic threats, is to introduce a live attenuated form of the virus into the body to trigger an immune response.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Statement 1 is correct. All influenza viruses are RNA viruses, belonging to the family Orthomyxoviridae. Their genetic material is segmented single-stranded RNA. Statement 3 is also correct. Viruses lack their own cellular machinery for replication and are thus 'obligate intracellular parasites'. They must infect a living host cell to multiply and cannot be grown on non-living, artificial culture media like bacteria or fungi can. Statement 2 is incorrect. While zoonosis is the transmission from animals to humans, the reverse, known as reverse zoonosis or anthroponosis, is also possible and has been documented (e.g., humans transmitting SARS-CoV-2 to minks and deer). Statement 4 is incorrect. This statement describes a live attenuated vaccine. In contrast, mRNA vaccines work by introducing a messenger RNA sequence that instructs the host's cells to produce a specific viral protein (e.g., an antigen), which then triggers an immune response, without introducing any part of the actual virus. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

The static concept

Virology: Characteristics of viruses (obligate parasites, genetic material), Zoonotic Transmission, and Modern Vaccine Platforms (mRNA).

From the news: Child with Chandipura virus infection dies in Gujarat's Sabarkantha

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q7 · Internal Security · Cybersecurity Policy & Regulation

With reference to the directions issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) under sub-section (6) of section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Service providers, intermediaries, and data centres are mandated to report specified types of cyber security incidents to CERT-In within 6 hours of their detection.
  2. 2.Virtual Private Network (VPN) providers operating in India are required to log and maintain validated user data, including IP addresses, for a rolling period of five years.
  3. 3.The mandatory reporting requirements under these directions are legally binding on individual citizens for cyber incidents experienced on their personal devices.
  4. 4.Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs) and cryptocurrency exchanges are mandated to maintain all Know Your Customer (KYC) information and records of financial transactions for five years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly two
  3. COnly threeCorrect answer
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Three statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct. The CERT-In Directions issued in April 2022 mandate that specified cyber incidents must be reported within 6 hours of being noticed, a significant reduction from previous norms. Statement 2 is correct. The directions require VPN service providers, among others, to register and maintain logs of user data like names, email IDs, and IP addresses for five years, a move that caused several providers to reconsider their Indian operations. Statement 3 is incorrect. These directions apply to service providers, intermediaries, data centres, and body corporates. They do not impose a legal reporting obligation on individual citizens for their personal devices. Statement 4 is correct. The directions explicitly brought Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs), crypto exchanges, and wallet providers under the ambit of maintaining KYC records and financial transaction data for a period of five years, aligning them with anti-money laundering regulations.

The static concept

Powers and functions of CERT-In under Section 70B of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, and its evolving regulatory directives.

From the news: How Stuxnet changed cyber warfare, and why it still matters in the Age of AI

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q8 · Environment · Protected Areas & Wildlife Reserves

Assertion (A): The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, rationalised the schedules of the parent Act, with a primary objective of aligning them with the Appendices of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

Reason (R): The amended structure now contains four schedules for specially protected animals, plants and CITES-listed specimens, with a new Schedule IV being created exclusively to list specimens regulated by CITES.

  1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of ACorrect answer
  2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. CA is true but R is false
  4. DA is false but R is true

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, which came into force in April 2023, had the implementation of CITES provisions as one of its main goals. To achieve this, it rationalised the schedules. The original six schedules were reduced to four. Schedule V (vermin) was removed. The new structure includes Schedule I (highest protection for animals), Schedule II (lesser protection for animals), Schedule III (plants), and a newly introduced Schedule IV specifically for specimens listed in the Appendices of CITES. The creation of this dedicated Schedule IV, as stated in the Reason, is the direct mechanism by which the objective of CITES alignment, mentioned in the Assertion, was operationalised. Therefore, R correctly explains A.

The static concept

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedules and Protected Areas framework, including the 2022 amendment.

From the news: Ex-forest officials, conservationists challenge functioning of India’s apex Wildlife Board in Delhi HC

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.