Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 9 July 2026

What is the primary objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)?

Why this answer

The correct option explicitly states the primary objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission that integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care to reduce Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) by encouraging poor pregnant women to deliver in health institutions. The option describing comprehensive antenatal care refers to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA). The option about free entitlements like drugs and diagnostics describes the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK). The option about improving nutritional outcomes is the broad goal of the POSHAN Abhiyaan.

The static concept

Maternal and Child Health Interventions under the National Health Mission (NHM).

The Government of India has launched the 'U-WIN' platform. What is its primary objective in the context of public health?

Why this answer

The U-WIN platform is designed to be the single source of truth for immunization data in India. It aims to digitize the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) by registering and tracking every pregnant woman and child for vaccination, recording their vaccination status, and issuing digital vaccination certificates, modelled on the success of the Co-WIN platform. The option regarding direct benefit transfer refers to schemes like PM-JAY. The option on non-communicable diseases relates to the National NCD portal. The option on tele-consultation refers to the e-Sanjeevani initiative.

The static concept

Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) and the use of technology in public health administration.

Which of the following recent trade agreements signed by India is uniquely characterized by a legally binding commitment from its partner bloc to invest $100 billion and facilitate the creation of one million jobs in India over a 15-year period?

Why this answer

The correct answer is the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA). Signed in March 2024, this agreement with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) countries—Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein—is groundbreaking. A key and legally binding feature is its commitment to promote $100 billion in foreign direct investment and create one million direct jobs in India over 15 years. The India-EU BTIA has been under negotiation for years but has not concluded with such a clause. The India-UK FTA is also under negotiation and does not feature this specific binding commitment. The India-Australia ECTA, while significant, focuses primarily on market access and tariff elimination without this unique investment-for-trade framework.

The static concept

India's Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) as instruments of foreign and economic policy.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a fundamental structural transformation in India's external sector since the economic reforms of 1991?

Why this answer

The most defining structural shift has been the rise of India as a services export powerhouse. This has resulted in a consistent and significant surplus in the services trade balance. This surplus acts as a crucial shock absorber, partially offsetting the large and persistent deficit in the merchandise (goods) trade account, thereby helping to manage the overall Current Account Deficit (CAD). The statement about a consistent current account surplus is incorrect; India typically runs a CAD, and FDI (part of the capital account) helps finance this deficit, not create a surplus. The claim that agricultural goods dominate exports is false; manufactured goods and services have a much larger share. The statement regarding a shift from ECBs to concessional loans is the opposite of what happened; post-liberalization, India's access to global capital markets improved, increasing reliance on market-based ECBs and reducing dependence on concessional aid.

The static concept

Balance of Payments (BoP) Structure and Post-1991 Reforms: Analyzing the structural shifts in India's current and capital accounts following economic liberalization.

With reference to the definition of 'State' under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. 1.It includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India.
2. 2.The judiciary, when exercising its judicial functions, is considered a part of the 'State' for the purpose of enforcing Fundamental Rights against it.
3. 3.The Supreme Court has held that even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the 'State'.
4. 4.The definition of 'State' is strictly confined to the territory of India and does not include authorities functioning under the control of the Government of India abroad.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct as it quotes the initial part of the definition of 'State' directly from Article 12. Statement 3 is also correct; the Supreme Court, in cases like R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority, has expanded the term 'other authorities' to include private bodies acting as instruments or agencies of the State. Statement 2 is incorrect because the judiciary, while performing its judicial functions, is not considered 'State' under Article 12. It is the adjudicator of rights, not the violator in that capacity. Statement 4 is incorrect because the phrase 'under the control of the Government of India' allows for extra-territorial application, covering bodies like Indian embassies.

The static concept

Article 12 — Definition of 'State' for the purpose of Part III (Fundamental Rights).

With reference to cybersecurity threats and infrastructure, consider the following statements:

1. 1.Ransomware is a type of malware that exclusively encrypts a victim's files, demanding a payment solely to restore access without exfiltrating the data.
2. 2.Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a framework primarily used for the symmetric encryption of data in transit to ensure confidentiality.
3. 3.The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is a statutory body under the IT Act, 2000 with the power to issue legally binding directions on cybersecurity matters.
4. 4.Deepfake technology, which relies on Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs), is used exclusively for malicious activities like disinformation and identity fraud.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. - The statement about Ransomware is incorrect. Modern ransomware often employs 'double extortion', where it not only encrypts files but also exfiltrates (steals) sensitive data, threatening to leak it if the ransom is not paid. The word 'exclusively' makes the statement false. - The statement about Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is incorrect. PKI uses *asymmetric* cryptography (public-private key pairs), not symmetric. Its primary role is to manage digital certificates for authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation, rather than bulk data encryption itself. - The statement about CERT-In is correct. It is a statutory body established under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended in 2008). It functions as the national nodal agency for responding to cybersecurity incidents and has the authority to issue binding directions. - The statement about Deepfake technology is incorrect. While it is widely used for malicious purposes, the technology itself has legitimate applications in the film industry (for de-aging actors), accessibility tools (creating synthetic voices), and art. The word 'exclusively' makes the statement false.

The static concept

Cybersecurity terminology, digital infrastructure principles (like PKI), and the legal framework governing cyberspace in India (IT Act, 2000 and CERT-In).

With reference to the key environmental regulatory bodies and laws in India, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established as a statutory organisation under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. 2.The State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) are empowered to issue directions for the closure or stoppage of electricity supply to any non-compliant industrial unit.
3. 3.The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has the jurisdiction to hear appeals against any order or decision made by authorities under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
4. 4.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 authorises the Central Government to lay down standards for the quality of environment in its various aspects.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statements 2 and 4 are correct, making 'Only two' the right answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, but its origin is not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 33A of the Water Act, 1974 and Section 31A of the Air Act, 1981, State Pollution Control Boards have the power to issue directions, including those for the closure, prohibition, or regulation of any industry and the stoppage or regulation of the supply of electricity, water, or any other service. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NGT Act, 2010 specifies in its Schedule I the seven acts under which it can hear cases. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 is notably excluded from this list, as is the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Statement 4 is correct. Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 gives wide-ranging powers to the Central Government to take all such measures as it deems necessary for protecting and improving the quality of the environment, which includes laying down standards.

The static concept

Statutory Environmental Bodies (CPCB, SPCB, NGT) and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

With reference to poverty estimation and consumption expenditure surveys in India, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Tendulkar Committee methodology shifted the basis of poverty estimation from a calorie-based norm to a broader consumption basket that included private expenditure on education and health.
2. 2.Official poverty lines in India are uniform across all states to ensure national comparability, with adjustments made only for rural-urban price differentials.
3. 3.The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) data is the primary source for deriving the poverty line, which is then updated over time using the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW).
4. 4.The Rangarajan Committee (2014) recommended reverting to a purely calorie-intake-based poverty line, arguing the Tendulkar methodology had inadequately captured nutritional requirements.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only the first statement is correct. 1. Correct: The Suresh Tendulkar Committee moved away from the earlier anchor of calorie consumption and incorporated a basket of goods and services that included private expenditure on health and education to define the poverty line. 2. Incorrect: This is factually wrong and contradicts the principle established by expert groups. Official poverty lines vary from state to state because of differences in price levels, a concept tested by UPSC in 2019. They are not uniform nationally. 3. Incorrect: While HCES is the primary data source, the price indices used for updating the poverty lines are specific. The Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) is used for rural poverty lines and the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is used for urban poverty lines. The statement incorrectly implies only CPI-IW is used for all updates. 4. Incorrect: The Rangarajan Committee did not recommend reverting to a purely calorie-based norm. It proposed a methodology based on normative levels for calories, proteins, and fats, and also included non-food expenses, thereby creating a new, higher poverty line but not abandoning the basket-of-goods approach.

The static concept

Poverty Estimation in India: Methodologies of Tendulkar and Rangarajan Committees, role of HCES, and use of price indices.

Why this answer

Both the Assertion and the Reason are factually correct statements, but the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion. The Assertion is correct because Hoysala architecture is a principal example of the Vesara style, which flourished in the Deccan and incorporated features from both the Northern Nagara and Southern Dravida styles. The Reason is also correct; Hoysala temples are renowned for their intricate, lathe-turned pillars and detailed sculptures, which were made possible by the use of soft soapstone. However, the use of soapstone explains the *ornamentation and detail* of the temples, not their *stylistic classification*. The classification as Vesara (hybrid) is based on architectural features like the combination of a Dravida-style vimana with a Nagara-style shikhara, and the unique stellate (star-shaped) ground plan, not the material used.

The static concept

Vesara Style of Temple Architecture, a hybrid of Nagara and Dravida styles, prominent in the Deccan region under dynasties like the Chalukyas and Hoysalas.

Why this answer

Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are factually correct, and R provides the correct explanation for A. Assertion (A) is correct because hypersonic weapons, like Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs), travel at speeds greater than Mach 5 within the atmosphere and can perform evasive maneuvers. This makes their trajectory unpredictable. Reason (R) is also correct as conventional Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) systems are designed to track and intercept threats that follow a predictable parabolic arc, mostly outside the Earth's atmosphere. Since hypersonic weapons fly at lower altitudes and can change direction, the predictive models used by traditional BMD systems are rendered ineffective. Thus, the design limitations of existing systems (R) directly explain the difficulty in countering the new threat (A).

The static concept

Principles of Missile Technology: Ballistic vs. Cruise vs. Hypersonic trajectories and their implications for Air Defence Systems.