Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 7 July 2026

What is the primary scientific objective of the Indian Space Research Organisation's (ISRO) Aditya-L1 mission?

Why this answer

The primary objective of Aditya-L1 is to observe the Sun's outermost layers. It is India's first dedicated solar observatory, placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system. This position provides an uninterrupted view of the Sun. The option to conduct a soft landing on the lunar south pole relates to the Chandrayaan-3 mission. The option to study the Martian atmosphere is the objective of the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan). The option to map Venus is the goal of the proposed Shukrayaan mission.

The static concept

India's Space Missions: Objectives and Achievements of Solar, Lunar, and Planetary Exploration.

Wetlands are often described by analogies like 'biological supermarkets' and 'earth's kidneys' due to the extensive ecosystem services they provide. Which of the following options most comprehensively describes their primary regulatory functions?

Why this answer

The correct option describes the dual primary regulatory functions of wetlands: water purification and flood mitigation. This aligns with the 'kidneys' analogy (purification) and their role as 'sponges' (flood control), which are central to their ecological importance. While the other options describe valid and important functions, they are not as comprehensive in capturing the core regulatory role. Acting as carbon sinks is a global climate regulation service. Serving as habitats is a supporting service for biodiversity. Groundwater recharge is another vital hydrological service, but the combination of purification and flood control represents the most immediate and critical regulatory impact on local and regional water systems.

The static concept

Ecosystem Services of Wetlands: Including provisioning, regulating, supporting, and cultural services as defined by frameworks like the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment and the Ramsar Convention.

Which of the following is considered the primary driver for the emergence and spread of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in bacterial populations?

Why this answer

The correct answer identifies the overuse and misuse of antimicrobial drugs as the primary driver. This practice creates immense selective pressure on bacterial populations. When antibiotics are used, susceptible bacteria are killed, but resistant ones survive and multiply, leading to the prevalence of resistant strains. While other options are relevant, they are not the primary driver. Horizontal gene transfer is a key *mechanism* for spreading resistance, not its initial cause. Poor sanitation facilitates the *transmission* of already resistant bacteria. Spontaneous mutations are the ultimate source of the genetic variation for resistance, but it is the selective pressure from antibiotic use that makes these mutations common in the population.

The static concept

Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): Mechanisms, Drivers, and Global Impact.

Which of the following climate change mitigation strategies primarily involves accelerating the natural geological process of mineral dissolution to capture atmospheric carbon dioxide, often by spreading finely ground silicate rocks on agricultural lands?

Why this answer

The correct answer is Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW). This process involves spreading finely crushed silicate rocks, like basalt, on land. When these rocks dissolve in rainwater, they react with and capture atmospheric CO2, converting it into stable bicarbonate ions that are eventually washed into the ocean and stored for long durations. Biochar Sequestration involves adding pyrolyzed biomass to soil, a different mechanism. Soil Liming is an agricultural practice primarily aimed at neutralizing soil acidity, not large-scale carbon capture. Phytomining uses plants to extract heavy metals from contaminated soil and is a form of bioremediation, unrelated to carbon sequestration.

The static concept

Climate Change Mitigation Strategies: Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) techniques, specifically Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW) and its distinction from other land-based methods.

With reference to the powers and procedures of the UN General Assembly and the Security Council, particularly concerning the veto, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The UN General Assembly is now required to convene within 10 working days whenever a veto is cast in the Security Council by one of its permanent members.
2. 2.The 'veto initiative' mechanism grants the General Assembly the power to legally overturn a veto cast in the Security Council.
3. 3.The 'Uniting for Peace' resolution of 1950 serves as a historical precedent, allowing the General Assembly to recommend collective measures when the Security Council is deadlocked.
4. 4.The resolution establishing the 'veto initiative' was co-sponsored by all five permanent members of the Security Council as part of a consensus-based reform package.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct. The UN General Assembly Resolution 76/262, adopted in April 2022, mandates that the Assembly convenes within 10 working days whenever a veto is cast in the Security Council. Statement 2 is incorrect. This mechanism does not grant the General Assembly any power to overturn or nullify a veto. Its purpose is to hold the veto-casting permanent member accountable by forcing a debate; the resolutions passed by the GA on the matter are not legally binding on the UNSC. Statement 3 is correct. The 'Uniting for Peace' resolution (Resolution 377 A of 1950) was adopted during the Korean War to allow the General Assembly to recommend collective action when the Security Council is paralyzed by a lack of unanimity among its permanent members. Statement 4 is incorrect. The resolution was initiated by Liechtenstein and co-sponsored by a large number of member states, but not by all P5 members. It was designed to increase scrutiny of the veto, a power the P5 are often reluctant to reform.

The static concept

Powers and functions of UN Principal Organs: Security Council (Veto Power) and General Assembly (Resolutions and Mandate).

With reference to the National Security Guard (NSG) of India, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The NSG is a deputation-based force, drawing its personnel solely from various units of the Indian Army.
2. 2.It was raised in 1984 in the aftermath of Operation Blue Star and is a statutory body established under an Act of Parliament.
3. 3.The NSG functions under the administrative and operational control of the Ministry of Defence.
4. 4.The primary mandate of the NSG is exclusively counter-terrorism, and it does not undertake any VIP security duties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. - The statement that the NSG is a deputation-based force drawing personnel solely from the Indian Army is incorrect. The NSG is a 'deputation' force and draws its members from both the Indian Army and Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs). - The statement that the NSG was raised in 1984 after Operation Blue Star and is a statutory body is correct. It was established in 1984 and given a formal legal framework by the National Security Guard Act, 1986. - The statement that the NSG functions under the Ministry of Defence is incorrect. It is under the administrative and operational control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). - The statement that the NSG's mandate is exclusively counter-terrorism without any VIP security duties is incorrect. While its primary role is counter-terrorism and anti-hijacking operations, it also provides mobile security to a few designated high-risk VIPs.

The static concept

National Security Guard (NSG): Mandate, Composition, and Command Structure.

With reference to advanced missile technologies, consider the following statements:

1. 1.A missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology carries multiple warheads that are all directed towards a single, pre-programmed target area for saturation.
2. 2.A Maneuverable Re-entry Vehicle (MaRV) follows a purely ballistic trajectory upon re-entering the atmosphere, making its path highly predictable for interception.
3. 3.Scramjet engines, essential for hypersonic cruise missiles, are air-breathing engines that carry their own solid oxidizer, allowing them to function efficiently outside the Earth's atmosphere.
4. 4.Terminal guidance systems, such as Infrared Homing and Active Radar Homing, are employed during the final phase of a missile's flight to achieve high precision against moving or hardened targets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statement 1 is incorrect. The key feature of MIRV is that its multiple warheads are 'Independently Targetable', meaning each can be directed to a separate target, unlike cluster munitions which saturate a single area. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary purpose of a MaRV is to be 'Maneuverable' during re-entry. This allows it to follow an unpredictable path, making it extremely difficult for anti-ballistic missile systems to intercept, contrary to the statement. Statement 3 is incorrect. Scramjet engines are 'air-breathing', meaning they use oxygen from the atmosphere as their oxidizer. They do not carry their own oxidizer (which is a characteristic of rocket engines) and therefore cannot function outside the Earth's atmosphere. Statement 4 is correct. Terminal guidance systems are activated in the final stage of the missile's trajectory to provide high-accuracy tracking and engagement, especially crucial for hitting mobile targets like ships or tanks, or reinforced structures. Thus, only one statement is correct.

The static concept

Advanced Missile Technologies: Re-entry Vehicles (MIRV, MaRV), Propulsion Systems (Scramjet), and Guidance Mechanisms (Terminal Homing).

With reference to the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP), consider the following statements:

1. 1.The NSAP is a Central Sector Scheme where the entire financial burden for providing benefits is borne by the Union Government.
2. 2.Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) component, all senior citizens above the age of 60 are eligible for a pension, irrespective of their income status.
3. 3.The programme is considered a significant step towards fulfilling the Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 41 of the Constitution.
4. 4.The National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) component provides a lump sum assistance to a bereaved household upon the death of the primary breadwinner, provided they were aged between 18 and 65 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. The NSAP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. While the central government provides assistance, states also contribute and are responsible for identification of beneficiaries and distribution. Statement 2 is incorrect. Eligibility under IGNOAPS is restricted to senior citizens belonging to a household living below the poverty line (BPL), as per the criteria prescribed by the Government of India. It is not a universal scheme. Statement 3 is correct. The NSAP provides social assistance for the elderly, widows, and persons with disabilities, which directly aligns with the directive in Article 41 of the Constitution for the state to make effective provision for securing the right to public assistance in such cases. Statement 4 is incorrect. The age bracket for the deceased primary breadwinner under the NFBS is 18 to 59 years, not 18 to 65 years. This is a precise detail that is often tested.

The static concept

National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) - A Centrally Sponsored Scheme providing non-contributory social security to the elderly, widows, and disabled persons from BPL households.

Why this answer

The Assertion (A) is false. While Article 32 is a Fundamental Right itself, it is not absolute. Under Article 359 of the Constitution, the President can, during a national emergency, suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, except for those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. The Reason (R) is true. The traditional rule of 'locus standi' (the right to bring an action) required that only a person whose rights were directly violated could approach the court. However, the Supreme Court has relaxed this rule through the innovation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL), allowing any public-spirited citizen to move the court on behalf of those who are unable to do so themselves. Since the Assertion is false and the Reason is true, the correct option is 'A is false but R is true'.

The static concept

Article 32 - Right to Constitutional Remedies, Writ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, and Public Interest Litigation (PIL).