Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 6 July 2026

The joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' is conducted bilaterally between the Indian Army and the army of which of the following countries?

Why this answer

The correct answer is Uzbekistan. Exercise DUSTLIK is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army. The 5th edition of this exercise was conducted in April 2024 in Termez, Uzbekistan. The exercise focuses on joint operations in mountainous and semi-urban terrain and is a key part of India's growing defence cooperation with Central Asian nations. The other options are incorrect: India's joint exercise with Kazakhstan is named 'KAZIND', and with Kyrgyzstan, it is 'KHANJAR'.

The static concept

India's Bilateral Defence Cooperation and Joint Military Exercises with friendly foreign countries.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a key feature of the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes the core mechanism of the PM-SYM scheme. It is a voluntary pension scheme where the subscriber makes a contribution, and the Central Government contributes an equal matching amount. The statement about the scheme being open to all unorganized sector workers irrespective of monthly income is incorrect; there is an eligibility criterion of monthly income up to ₹15,000. The statement claiming it provides life and disability insurance is also incorrect; PM-SYM is a pension scheme, while insurance is covered under schemes like PMJJBY and PMSBY. Lastly, the pension is not market-linked; it provides an assured minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month upon reaching the age of 60, making the statement about market performance linkage false.

The static concept

Social Security Schemes for the Unorganized Sector

Which one of the following options correctly describes an Indian launch vehicle, its typical payload, and its primary target orbit?

Why this answer

The correct option correctly matches the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) with its primary mission of launching communication satellites into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). From GTO, the satellite uses its own propulsion system to enter the final Geostationary Orbit. The other options are incorrect. The PSLV is ISRO's workhorse, primarily used for launching Earth observation or remote sensing satellites into Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits (SSPO), not heavy communication satellites into GTO. The SSLV is designed to launch small satellites on-demand into Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not heavy manned crew modules. The Gaganyaan mission will use the human-rated LVM3. The LVM3 is India's heavy-lift vehicle, designed for missions like Chandrayaan and launching heavy communication satellites to GTO, not primarily for nano-satellite constellations in LEO, which is a task better suited for PSLV or SSLV.

The static concept

Indian Space Launch Vehicles: Differentiating PSLV, GSLV, LVM3, and SSLV based on payload capacity, staging, and primary target orbits (LEO, SSPO, GTO).

Which of the following statements best explains the primary mechanism of 'Ocean Iron Fertilization' as a proposed climate change mitigation strategy?

Which of the following statements best explains the primary mechanism of 'Ocean Iron Fertilization' as a proposed climate change mitigation strategy?

Why this answer

The correct option accurately describes Ocean Iron Fertilization (OIF), a method of carbon dioxide removal. It involves adding iron to 'High-Nutrient, Low-Chlorophyll' (HNLC) ocean areas to trigger phytoplankton blooms. These microorganisms absorb CO2 via photosynthesis. When they die, a fraction sinks to the deep ocean, sequestering the embedded carbon for long periods. The option describing adding alkaline minerals refers to 'Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement', a different CDR technique. The option mentioning increasing ocean albedo describes a Solar Radiation Management (SRM) technique, which aims to reflect sunlight rather than remove CO2. The option about artificial upwelling describes another distinct geoengineering concept focused on cooling surface waters.

The static concept

Climate Change Mitigation Strategies: Geoengineering, Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR), and Solar Radiation Management (SRM).

With reference to the Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The strategy targets six beneficiary groups, which include children from 6 months of age, adolescents, and women of reproductive age, but explicitly excludes lactating mothers.
2. 2.It involves prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation for all six designated target beneficiary groups.
3. 3.A key institutional mechanism under the strategy is the creation of a digital portal, the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Dashboard, for real-time monitoring.
4. 4.The strategy mandates the universal fortification of all food provided under the Mid-Day Meal Scheme with both iron and vitamin B12.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

There are two correct statements. Statement 2 is correct as prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation is a core intervention for all six beneficiary groups under the AMB strategy. Statement 3 is also correct; the establishment of a digital dashboard for monitoring is part of its institutional mechanism. Statement 1 is incorrect because lactating mothers are one of the six key beneficiary groups targeted by the strategy. Statement 4 is incorrect because while food fortification is a method to combat anaemia, the AMB strategy's core components do not mandate universal fortification of all Mid-Day Meal scheme foods in this specific manner; its primary focus is on supplementation, deworming, and behaviour change.

The static concept

Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) Strategy: A key public health mission under the National Health Mission aimed at reducing anaemia prevalence through a 6x6x6 strategy (6 beneficiaries, 6 interventions, 6 institutional mechanisms).

With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The true arch and dome construction technique, using voussoirs and a keystone, was introduced to the Indian subcontinent by the Turkish rulers.
2. 2.The Iqta system, a form of land revenue assignment, was an indigenous Indian institution that was later adopted and modified by the Sultans.
3. 3.Alauddin Khalji established the department of 'Diwan-i-Mustakhraj' primarily to ensure the direct cash payment of salaries to his large standing army.
4. 4.Recent archaeological findings at Delhi's Purana Qila have confirmed its identification with the city of 'Siri', built by Alauddin Khalji.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. - Statement 1 is correct. The Turkish invaders introduced the arcuate style of architecture, which involves using true arches (with voussoirs and a keystone) and domes. This was distinct from the indigenous trabeate style which used lintels and corbelled arches. - Statement 2 is incorrect. The Iqta system was not an indigenous institution. It was an established practice in the Islamic empires of Persia and Central Asia, which was introduced in India by the Delhi Sultans for revenue collection and administration. - Statement 3 is incorrect. While Alauddin Khalji did introduce cash salaries for his army, the department of 'Diwan-i-Mustakhraj' was created specifically to inquire into and collect revenue arrears from revenue collectors ('amils' and 'muqaddams'), not to disburse salaries. - Statement 4 is incorrect. The city of Siri, built by Alauddin Khalji, is located near the present-day Shahpur Jat area in Delhi. Purana Qila is historically associated with Humayun's Dinpanah and Sher Shah Suri's Shergarh.

The static concept

Administrative, Economic, and Architectural features of the Delhi Sultanate.

With reference to the World Economic Forum's Global Gender Gap Report, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The report benchmarks gender parity across four key dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment.
2. 2.On the index's 0-to-1 scale, a score of 1 indicates complete gender imparity, while a score of 0 signifies full gender parity.
3. 3.The index incorporates the digital gender divide, including access to mobile internet and digital skills, as a fifth standalone sub-index for its overall ranking.
4. 4.The index is designed to measure gender-based gaps in outcomes, not the absolute levels of development or the resources available to women in a country.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

There are two correct statements. Statement 1 is correct; the Global Gender Gap Index is built upon four key pillars: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. Statement 2 is incorrect; the scoring is the opposite, where 1 represents full parity and 0 represents complete imparity. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the report discusses the digital gender divide, it is not a formal, standalone fifth sub-index used in the ranking calculation. There are only four sub-indices. Statement 4 is correct; the index focuses on measuring gaps between men and women in access to resources and opportunities, not the absolute levels of those resources. For instance, a country with low overall literacy for both genders might rank higher on the education sub-index than a country with a large literacy gap between highly literate men and moderately literate women.

The static concept

International Indices and Reports: Global Gender Gap Index (methodology, parameters, and interpretation).

With reference to the constitutional safeguards regarding arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The rights to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours are not constitutionally guaranteed to a person detained under a preventive detention law.
2. 2.An Advisory Board constituted to review preventive detention cases must consist of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, judges of a High Court.
3. 3.The judicial position established in the A.K. Gopalan case, which treated Articles 21 and 22 as mutually exclusive, remains the current standard for evaluating the validity of a preventive detention law.
4. 4.Parliament is constitutionally barred from enacting a law that provides for preventive detention for a period longer than three months, even with the approval of an Advisory Board.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while 3 and 4 are incorrect, making 'Only two' the right answer. - Statement 1 is correct. Article 22(3)(b) explicitly states that the protections available under Article 22(1) and 22(2) (right to be informed of grounds, consult a lawyer, be produced before a magistrate) do not apply to a person arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. - Statement 2 is correct. This is the precise qualification for members of the Advisory Board as laid down in Article 22(4)(a) of the Constitution. - Statement 3 is incorrect. The view from *A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)* was overturned by the Supreme Court in *Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)*. The current legal position is that the procedure for detention under Article 22 must also be 'just, fair and reasonable' to satisfy the requirements of Article 21. - Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 22(7)(b) empowers Parliament to prescribe the maximum period for which any person may in any class or classes of cases be detained under any law providing for preventive detention. There is no absolute bar on detention beyond three months; the three-month period is a default limit that can be extended on the recommendation of an Advisory Board or by a law made by Parliament for specific classes of cases.

The static concept

Article 22: Protection Against Arrest and Detention, and its interplay with Article 21's 'Procedure Established by Law'.

Why this answer

Both statements are individually true, but the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion. The Assertion is correct because official poverty lines in India are adjusted for spatial price differentials. The monetary value of the minimum consumption basket required to stay above poverty varies across states due to different price levels. The Reason is also a correct statement; there are wide disparities in the economic structure (e.g., agricultural vs. service-led economies) and per capita incomes among Indian states. However, the direct cause for state-specific poverty lines is the adjustment for cost of living (price levels), not the sectoral composition of GSDP. While economic structure can influence prices, it is not the methodological basis for the adjustment.

The static concept

Poverty Estimation in India: Methodologies (e.g., Tendulkar Committee), role of price indices, and regional variations.

Why this answer

Both the Assertion and the Reason are factually correct, and the Reason provides the primary explanation for the Assertion. The Assertion is correct because the New Development Bank (NDB) for infrastructure financing and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for balance-of-payment support were established by the Fortaleza Declaration (2014) as alternatives to the World Bank and IMF, respectively. The Reason is also correct; a key grievance of emerging economies like the BRICS nations was the slow pace of quota and governance reforms in the Bretton Woods institutions, which did not grant them voting power commensurate with their increased share in the global economy. This frustration with underrepresentation (Reason) was the direct political impetus for creating their own parallel financial architecture (Assertion) where they would have greater say.

The static concept

BRICS: Evolution, Objectives, and Financial Architecture (New Development Bank & Contingent Reserve Arrangement).