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Daily quiz archive · 3 July 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 3 July 2026

Of this day’s ten questions, 9 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.

Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.

Q1 · Science & Tech · Science Institutions, Policy & Innovation

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), the apex body for regulating genetically modified organisms in India, functions under the administrative control of which ministry?

  1. AMinistry of Environment, Forest and Climate ChangeCorrect answer
  2. BMinistry of Science and Technology
  3. CMinistry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
  4. DMinistry of Commerce and Industry

Why this answer

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the 'Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989' notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Therefore, it functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. While its work involves agriculture and science, its primary mandate is environmental safety assessment, placing it under the Environment Ministry.

The static concept

Statutory and regulatory bodies in India, specifically the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) and its role in biosafety under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

From the news: Centre amends Drugs Rules, 1945 to ensure uniform regulation of advance cell and gene therapies

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q2 · Polity · State Government

With reference to the administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, which of the following statements most accurately describes the special powers of the Governor?

  1. AThe Governor is empowered to direct that an Act of Parliament or the State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area or applies with specified modifications.Correct answer
  2. BThe Governor has the final authority to notify an area as a Scheduled Area, based on the recommendation of the Tribes Advisory Council.
  3. CThe Governor must mandatorily act on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers for all matters concerning the administration of Scheduled Areas.
  4. DThe Governor can unilaterally amend the provisions of the Fifth Schedule itself to better suit the needs of the tribal population in the state.

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes a key power of the Governor under the Fifth Schedule. Paragraph 5 of the Schedule explicitly grants the Governor the power to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or shall apply subject to such exceptions and modifications as they may specify. The option stating the Governor notifies Scheduled Areas is incorrect; this power rests with the President of India. The option regarding the mandatory aid and advice of the Council of Ministers is incorrect because the Governor has special responsibilities in these areas and must consult the Tribes Advisory Council. The option suggesting the Governor can amend the Fifth Schedule is incorrect as the power to amend the Constitution, including its Schedules, rests with the Parliament.

The static concept

Fifth Schedule of the Constitution — Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes, focusing on the special powers of the Governor.

From the news: Yes and no: On the erosion of India’s grassroots democracy

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q3 · Economy · Banking System

Which one of the following statements best describes the primary function of the National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL), often referred to as India's 'Bad Bank'?

  1. ATo provide direct capital infusion to Public Sector Banks to improve their Capital Adequacy Ratio.
  2. BTo acquire and consolidate stressed assets from commercial banks to facilitate their resolution and recovery.Correct answer
  3. CTo act as a new regulatory body for overseeing the credit appraisal processes of commercial banks.
  4. DTo provide last-mile credit and financial services in unbanked rural areas.

Why this answer

The correct option accurately describes NARCL's function. NARCL, or the 'Bad Bank', was established to acquire Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) or stressed assets from commercial banks. By transferring these bad loans to NARCL, banks can clean up their balance sheets, which in turn helps them resume normal lending activities. NARCL then focuses on resolving and recovering value from these stressed assets. Providing direct capital infusion is a function of the government. Regulation is the mandate of the RBI. Providing last-mile credit is the objective of institutions like Small Finance Banks and Regional Rural Banks.

The static concept

Non-Performing Assets (NPAs), Stressed Assets, and Banking Sector Reforms (including Asset Reconstruction Companies and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code).

From the news: Can being under the insolvency process prevent ED action against a company? Why NCLAT says no

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q4 · International Relations · International Human Rights, Labour & Governance Bodies

Which of the following international organizations is a non-governmental entity that investigates and reports on human rights abuses, is noted for its policy of not accepting any direct or indirect funding from governments, and publishes a flagship annual 'World Report' summarizing human rights conditions in over 90 countries?

  1. AAmnesty International
  2. BOffice of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR)
  3. CInternational Crisis Group (ICG)
  4. DHuman Rights Watch (HRW)Correct answer

Why this answer

The correct option is Human Rights Watch (HRW). It is a non-governmental organization (NGO) known for its in-depth research and reporting on human rights abuses worldwide. A defining characteristic of HRW is its strict funding policy, which refuses all government funding to ensure its independence and impartiality. It is also famous for its annual 'World Report'. Amnesty International is also a major human rights NGO, but the combination of a strict no-government-funding policy and the specific 'World Report' publication points directly to HRW. The Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) is an agency of the United Nations, not an NGO. The International Crisis Group is an NGO focused on preventing and resolving deadly conflict, a related but distinct mission, and it does accept some government funding.

The static concept

Mandate, structure, and funding of major International Non-Governmental Organizations (INGOs) vs. Inter-Governmental Organizations (IGOs) in the human rights domain.

From the news: Around 2% of Gaza’s child population killed by Israeli security forces : UN report

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q5 · Art & Culture · UNESCO Heritage Sites & Pilgrimage Traditions

With reference to India's engagement with UNESCO for heritage recognition, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Garba of Gujarat was the first Indian dance form to be inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
  2. 2.India's list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites includes more cultural sites than natural and mixed sites combined.
  3. 3.The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the sole nodal agency responsible for submitting dossiers for both Intangible Cultural Heritage and World Heritage Sites to UNESCO.
  4. 4.The Kumbh Mela is recognized as an Intangible Cultural Heritage, while the city of Varanasi is recognized as a World Heritage City.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly oneCorrect answer
  2. BOnly two
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Before Garba (inscribed in 2023), other dance forms like Chhau dance (2010) and Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (2010) were already on the Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) list. Statement 2 is correct. As of early 2024, India has 43 World Heritage Sites: 35 are Cultural, 7 are Natural, and 1 is Mixed. The number of cultural sites (35) is greater than the sum of natural and mixed sites (7 + 1 = 8). Statement 3 is incorrect. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the nodal agency for tangible World Heritage Sites, but the Sangeet Natak Akademi is the nodal body for submitting dossiers related to Intangible Cultural Heritage. Statement 4 is incorrect. While the Kumbh Mela was inscribed as an ICH in 2017, Varanasi is not a UNESCO World Heritage City. The two Indian cities with this designation are Ahmedabad and Jaipur.

The static concept

UNESCO's framework for heritage recognition, including the distinction between World Heritage Sites (Cultural, Natural, Mixed) and Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH), and the roles of nodal agencies.

From the news: UN asks Pakistan to reverse ‘reconstructions’ at Taxila sites

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q6 · Social Issues · Public Health & Immunization

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), consider the following statements:

  1. 1.It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a primary focus on establishing critical care hospital blocks in every district of the country.
  2. 2.The mission exclusively targets the development of health infrastructure in rural areas, leaving urban areas under the purview of the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
  3. 3.One of its key components is the establishment of Integrated Public Health Labs in all districts to enhance disease surveillance capabilities.
  4. 4.A major objective of the mission is to provide viability gap funding to encourage private hospitals to establish facilities in underserved areas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly oneCorrect answer
  2. BOnly two
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 3 is the only correct statement; establishing Integrated Public Health Labs in all districts is a core component of PM-ABHIM to strengthen diagnostic and surveillance capacity. Statement 1 is incorrect because PM-ABHIM is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect as the mission aims to fill infrastructure gaps in both urban and rural areas, not exclusively rural areas. Statement 4 is incorrect as the mission's focus is on strengthening the public health infrastructure, not providing viability gap funding for private hospitals.

The static concept

Public Health Infrastructure in India, focusing on flagship schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM).

From the news: Ebola outbreak could cost Africa $3.6 bn, says UN

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q7 · International Relations · India–Europe & Western Strategic Partnerships

With reference to the India-United States strategic partnership, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.India has signed all four foundational defence agreements with the US, with the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) for geospatial intelligence being the final one.
  2. 2.The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) is co-led by the National Security Councils of both nations and aims to create a 'defense innovation bridge' primarily for public sector undertakings.
  3. 3.The 'Major Defense Partner' status granted by the US to India places India on par with America's NATO allies for the purpose of high-technology trade and transfer.
  4. 4.The inaugural India-US 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue, involving the foreign and defence ministers, was held after India was granted the Strategic Trade Authorization-1 (STA-1) status by the US.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

There are two correct statements, making 'Only two' the correct answer. Statement 1 is correct. India has signed all four foundational agreements: GSOMIA (2002), LEMOA (2016), COMCASA (2018), and finally BECA (2020), which pertains to sharing of geospatial intelligence. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the iCET is indeed co-led by the respective National Security Councils, the 'defense innovation bridge' (INDUS-X) it promotes is aimed at connecting startups, private companies, and academic institutions, not 'primarily' public sector undertakings. Statement 3 is incorrect. The 'Major Defense Partner' status is a significant designation that eases defence trade and technology transfer, bringing India to a level close to that of the closest US allies. However, it does not place India 'on par' with NATO allies, who have formal treaty-based security guarantees and deeper levels of integration under a mutual defence pact. Statement 4 is correct. India was granted STA-1 status in July 2018. The inaugural 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue was held subsequently in September 2018 in New Delhi.

The static concept

India-US Strategic Partnership: Foundational Defence Agreements (BECA, COMCASA, LEMOA), Technology Cooperation (iCET), and high-level Dialogue Mechanisms (2+2 Dialogue).

From the news: India, Japan sign defence pact as PM Modi holds talks with Takaichi

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q8 · Science & Tech · ISRO & Space Missions

Assertion (A): The Gaganyaan mission is primarily designed to demonstrate India's indigenous capability to undertake human space flight missions to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

Reason (R): A key objective of the Gaganyaan mission is to provide a platform for scientific experiments in the microgravity environment.

  1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.Correct answer
  3. CA is true, but R is false.
  4. DA is false, but R is true.

Why this answer

Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are factually correct statements, but the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion. The primary objective of the Gaganyaan mission, as stated by ISRO, is indeed to demonstrate the indigenous capability for human spaceflight. This is a strategic and technological goal. The mission also aims to conduct scientific experiments in microgravity, making the Reason a correct statement on its own. However, the scientific experiments are a secondary objective or a benefit derived from achieving human spaceflight capability; they are not the primary reason for demonstrating the capability itself. The core driver is technological self-reliance and national prestige.

The static concept

ISRO's Human Spaceflight Programme (HSP): Gaganyaan Mission objectives, launch vehicle (Human-rated LVM3), orbital module, and crew training.

From the news: India’s first privately developed orbital-class rocket Vikram-1 set for launch

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q9 · Environment · Climate Change & Greenhouse Gas Management

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): Enhanced weathering, through the large-scale application of crushed silicate rocks like basalt on land, is classified as a Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) strategy.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The primary climate-mitigating effect of this technique is the significant increase in surface albedo, causing more solar radiation to be reflected and thus directly countering the greenhouse effect.

  1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. CA is true but R is falseCorrect answer
  4. DA is false but R is true

Why this answer

The Assertion (A) is true. Enhanced weathering is a proposed geoengineering technique that aims to accelerate the natural weathering of rocks to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Because it actively removes CO2, it is correctly classified as a Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) method. The Reason (R) is false. The primary mechanism of enhanced weathering is chemical, not physical. Crushed silicate rocks react with CO2 and water, converting atmospheric CO2 into stable carbonate minerals in soils and eventually oceans. This sequesters the carbon. The statement in R describes the mechanism of Solar Radiation Management (SRM), which aims to increase the Earth's albedo (reflectivity) to cool the planet. Therefore, R incorrectly attributes an SRM mechanism to a CDR technique.

The static concept

Climate Change Mitigation Strategies: Geoengineering, Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) vs. Solar Radiation Management (SRM), and Enhanced Weathering.

From the news: El Nino effect: Challenges to adaptation and resilience

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.