Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 2 July 2026

What are the two primary criteria that a region must meet to qualify as a global biodiversity hotspot, as defined by Conservation International?

Why this answer

A region qualifies as a biodiversity hotspot by meeting two strict criteria defined by Conservation International. The correct option states these accurately: first, it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics (meaning they are found nowhere else). Second, it must have lost at least 70% of its original natural vegetation, signifying a high degree of threat. The other options confuse this definition with different concepts. Being a UNESCO site or a megadiverse country are separate designations, and while a hotspot may contain a Tiger Reserve, it is not a defining criterion. The thresholds of 1,500 plant species and 70% habitat loss are specific and must be known.

The static concept

Biodiversity Hotspots: Definition, Criteria (endemism and threat level), and Global/Indian examples.

Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal status of waters enclosed by an archipelagic state's baselines?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes the regime for archipelagic states under Part IV of UNCLOS. The waters enclosed by the straight baselines of an archipelagic state are designated as 'archipelagic waters'. The state exercises full sovereignty over these waters, the airspace above them, their seabed, and subsoil. However, this sovereignty is subject to the right of 'archipelagic sea lanes passage' for foreign ships and aircraft through designated sea lanes. The option describing them as 'internal waters' is incorrect because, unlike internal waters, a specific right of passage exists. The option mentioning 'EEZ' is incorrect as the EEZ lies outside the territorial sea, and these are sovereign waters, not just zones of economic rights. The option classifying them as 'international straits' is also wrong; while the passage rights are similar to 'transit passage', the legal classification of the water body itself is distinct.

The static concept

UNCLOS Part IV: Archipelagic States — defines the drawing of straight baselines, the concept of archipelagic waters, and the right of archipelagic sea lanes passage.

India recently signed a landmark Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Which of the following groups of countries correctly represents all the members of the EFTA bloc?

Why this answer

The correct option identifies Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland as the four member states of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). The India-EFTA TEPA was signed in March 2024. The other options are incorrect as they include countries that are not part of EFTA. Sweden, Finland, Denmark, Austria, Belgium, and Ireland are all members of the European Union (EU). The United Kingdom left the EU but has not joined EFTA.

The static concept

International Economic Groupings and India's Foreign Trade Agreements.

In a significant milestone for its 'Make in India' defence initiative and 'Act East' policy, India recently delivered the first batch of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile system. Which country was the recipient of this landmark export deal?

Why this answer

The correct answer is The Philippines. In January 2022, India signed a $375 million deal with the Philippines to supply a shore-based anti-ship variant of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. The first batch of these missiles was delivered in April 2024, marking India's largest single defence export order and a major step in its strategic partnership with ASEAN nations. While India maintains strong defence ties with Vietnam, Indonesia, and Malaysia, and discussions about BrahMos have occurred with some of them, the Philippines is the country that finalized the purchase and received the initial delivery.

The static concept

India's Defence Export Policy and 'Act East' Policy: This involves enhancing strategic partnerships and defence capabilities with Southeast Asian nations to promote regional stability and counter-balance influence in the Indo-Pacific.

With reference to the concepts of economic growth and development, consider the following statements:

1. 1.Economic growth refers to the quantitative increase in a country's real output of goods and services, while economic development encompasses qualitative improvements in living standards.
2. 2.The Human Development Index (HDI) is published by the World Bank and is a composite statistic of life expectancy, literacy rate, and per capita income.
3. 3.India's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), released by NITI Aayog, primarily uses per capita consumption expenditure to measure poverty.
4. 4.The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) framework aims to achieve a balance between economic progress, social equity, and environmental sustainability.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. The statement distinguishing economic growth (quantitative) from economic development (qualitative) is fundamentally correct. The statement defining the aim of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) as balancing economic, social, and environmental factors is also correct. However, the statement on the Human Development Index (HDI) is incorrect; it is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), not the World Bank, and its education component uses 'mean years of schooling' and 'expected years of schooling', not just the literacy rate. The statement on India's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is also incorrect; it does not use consumption expenditure. Instead, it measures deprivations across health, education, and standard of living, marking a shift away from traditional income-based poverty lines.

The static concept

Distinction between Economic Growth (quantitative increase in national income/GDP) and Economic Development (qualitative improvement in human well-being, measured by indices like HDI and MPI).

With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements:

1. 1.Individuals who are income taxpayers are ineligible to join the scheme from October 1, 2022.
2. 2.The monthly contribution by a subscriber is co-contributed by the Central Government on a 50:50 basis for the entire duration of the contribution period.
3. 3.The scheme is primarily targeted at workers in the unorganised sector, although it is open to all citizens of India meeting the eligibility criteria.
4. 4.Upon premature exit before the age of 60, the subscriber is only entitled to receive their own contributions without any accumulated interest.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Finance amended the APY rules, making any citizen who is or has been an income taxpayer ineligible to join the scheme from October 1, 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect. The government co-contribution was limited to 50% of the subscriber's contribution or Rs. 1000 per annum (whichever is lower), for a period of 5 years only, for eligible subscribers who joined between June 2015 and March 2016. It is not for the entire duration or for all subscribers. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme was specifically launched to provide social security and encourage a savings culture, particularly among citizens working in the unorganised sector. Statement 4 is incorrect. In case of voluntary premature exit, the subscriber's contribution along with the net actual interest earned on it is returned. The government's co-contribution and its interest component are not returned.

The static concept

Social Security Schemes for the Unorganised Sector: Atal Pension Yojana (APY) - features, eligibility, and benefits.

With reference to the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) framework, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The legal mandate for establishing the ICM and the carbon credit trading scheme stems from the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. 2.The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the administrator for the ICM, overseeing its implementation.
3. 3.The ICM is designed primarily as a voluntary market to help corporations achieve their Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) targets.
4. 4.The accounting and verification of emission reductions under the ICM are mandated to follow the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol standards.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Only one statement is correct. Statement 2 is correct, as the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the administrator of the Indian Carbon Market. Statement 1 is incorrect; the legal framework for the ICM was established by the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, which amended the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ICM is being established as a compliance market, where certain entities are mandated to meet emission targets, not a voluntary one. Statement 4 is incorrect; while India's standards may align with international best practices, the framework specifies that a National Steering Committee will approve methodologies and rules for verification, establishing a domestic system rather than mandating an external one like the GHG Protocol.

The static concept

Carbon Markets and Emissions Trading Schemes (ETS) as a market-based mechanism for climate change mitigation, including their legal and institutional frameworks.

With reference to India's bilateral relations with its neighbouring countries, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Kartarpur Corridor, facilitating visa-free travel for Indian Sikh pilgrims, connects Dera Baba Nanak in India to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan across the Sutlej river.
2. 2.The 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Boundary Agreement, which ceded Katchatheevu island to Sri Lanka, explicitly guaranteed perpetual fishing rights for Indian fishermen in the surrounding waters.
3. 3.The territorial dispute between India and Nepal over the Kalapani region stems from the definitive and unambiguous demarcation of the area as Nepalese territory in the Treaty of Sugauli (1816).
4. 4.The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project, a key component of the 'Act East' policy, involves transit through both Myanmar and Bangladeshi territory to provide an alternative route to India's Northeast.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

The correct option is 'None' as all four statements are incorrect. 1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Kartarpur Corridor is built across the Ravi river, not the Sutlej river. 2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1974 agreement allowed Indian fishermen access to Katchatheevu for rest and drying nets but did not guarantee fishing rights. A subsequent 1976 agreement further clarified that fishermen from both countries would not fish in each other's Exclusive Economic Zones. 3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The dispute over Kalapani arises precisely because the Treaty of Sugauli (1816) is ambiguous about the exact source of the Kali River, which forms the border. It does not contain a definitive demarcation of the area. 4. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Kaladan Project is specifically designed to bypass Bangladesh by creating a sea-river-road link from Kolkata to Mizoram via Myanmar's Sittwe port. It does not involve transit through Bangladeshi territory.

The static concept

India's Bilateral Relations with South Asian Neighbours: Treaties, Territorial Disputes, and Connectivity Projects.

Why this answer

The correct option is that Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. Assertion (A) is correct as PMMVY is a Conditional Cash Transfer scheme providing ₹5,000 for the first child to compensate for wage loss and encourage health-seeking behaviors like early registration of pregnancy, ante-natal checkups, and child immunization. Reason (R) is false because the scheme that primarily and directly incentivizes institutional deliveries is the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), not PMMVY. While improved health-seeking behaviour under PMMVY may indirectly lead to more institutional deliveries, it is not the scheme's direct, primary incentive structure.

The static concept

Maternity Benefit Schemes in India, focusing on the specific objectives and conditionalities of Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) versus Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY).

Why this answer

Both the Assertion and the Reason are factually correct statements, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion. Assertion (A) is true. The power of quantum computing stems from the principles of quantum mechanics, primarily superposition and entanglement. Superposition allows a qubit to be in a combination of 0 and 1 states at the same time, enabling a massive parallel processing capability that grows exponentially with the number of qubits. Reason (R) is also true. Quantum states are extremely fragile. Any interaction with the external environment (like heat or electromagnetic fields) can cause the qubit to lose its quantum state in a process called decoherence. This is the single biggest engineering hurdle in building large, stable quantum computers. However, the Reason (R) describes a major *challenge* or *limitation* in building quantum computers, while the Assertion (A) describes the *source of their power*. A challenge is not the explanation for an advantage. Therefore, R is not the correct explanation of A.

The static concept

Quantum Computing: Principles of Superposition, Entanglement, and Decoherence.