Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 11 September 2026

With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which one of the following statements is correct?

Why this answer

The correct statement is about the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI). This is a central feature of the Act, creating an adjudicatory body to handle compliance, penalties, and grievances. The statement that the Act categorises data as 'sensitive' or 'critical' is incorrect; unlike the GDPR or previous IT Rules, the DPDP Act, 2023 applies a uniform standard of protection to all personal data. The assertion that AI data centers require a standalone environmental clearance is false; they are regulated under existing norms for large construction projects. Finally, the statement that consent is irrevocable is incorrect, as the Act explicitly grants Data Principals the right to withdraw their consent at any time.

The static concept

Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 — its key provisions, rights of Data Principals, and obligations of Data Fiduciaries.

Recent judicial scrutiny regarding food labeling has brought renewed focus on the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). In this context, which of the following statements is correct regarding the FSSAI?

Why this answer

The correct statement is that FSSAI is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Food Safety and Standards Act was enacted in 2006, but the FSSAI was formally established later in 2008. The 2006 Act consolidated various food-related laws and repealed the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, making it the new principal legislation. The Chairperson of FSSAI is appointed by the central government and must hold or have held a position not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, not a judicial position.

The static concept

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) - its establishment, mandate, composition, and administrative ministry under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

The empowerment of Gram Sabhas to manage community resources, a subject of frequent discussion in the context of forest and tribal rights, is primarily enabled by which constitutional provision that allows State Legislatures to devolve powers to local self-governing bodies?

Why this answer

The correct answer is based on Article 243-G of the Constitution. This article, introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act, is the foundational provision that enables State Legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats (including Gram Sabhas) to function as institutions of self-government. The other options are incorrect. The PESA Act is a central statute that extends Part IX to Scheduled Areas only, not the entire country. The Forest Rights Act is also a statute, not a constitutional provision, and it recognizes rights to manage resources, not wholesale ownership transfer. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas, primarily outlining the Governor's role, but does not itself establish the mechanism for devolution of powers to Panchayats.

The static concept

73rd Constitutional Amendment Act - Article 243-G: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats, and the role of State Legislatures in devolution of power.

Recent disruptions to international shipping near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait have highlighted complexities in maritime security. In this context, which statement most accurately reflects the interplay of international law and India's official position?

Why this answer

The correct statement reflects India's official position. India's Ministry of External Affairs and its Permanent Representative to the UN have explicitly condemned attacks on shipping in the region, terming them 'unacceptable' and emphasizing that the protection of the Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a 'shared international responsibility' and a 'global interest'. The statement about 'innocent passage' is incorrect; straits used for international navigation like Bab el-Mandeb are governed by the 'transit passage' regime under UNCLOS, which cannot be suspended. The statement regarding UNSC Resolution 2722 is an overstatement; while it demands cessation of attacks, it does not provide blanket authority for unilateral military action. Lastly, the claim that India has avoided an official stance is factually wrong, as India has issued clear condemnations.

The static concept

International Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), particularly passage rights in international straits, collective security mechanisms, and India's maritime doctrine.

With reference to women's economic participation and entrepreneurship in India, consider the following statements:

1. 1.According to recent Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data, India's Female Labour Force Participation Rate for persons aged 15 years and above has shown a significant increase, rising from approximately 23% in 2017-18 to over 41% in 2023-24.
2. 2.The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which conducts the PLFS, operates under the Ministry of Labour & Employment.
3. 3.A vast majority of women-owned enterprises in India are self-financed, with institutional investments in such businesses accounting for less than 5% of the total in recent years.
4. 4.The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP), a key initiative to support women entrepreneurs, is managed by NITI Aayog.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Three statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct, reflecting the latest PLFS data which shows a significant rise in the Female Labour Force Participation Rate from 23.3% in 2017-18 to 41.7% in 2023-24. Statement 3 is also correct; NITI Aayog reports indicate that 79% of women-owned businesses are self-financed and receive less than 1% of institutional investments, making the '<5%' figure accurate. Statement 4 is correct as the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is indeed an initiative of NITI Aayog. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not the Ministry of Labour & Employment.

The static concept

Women's labour force participation, gender equality, and economic empowerment, linking to Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 5 & 8).

Recent judicial interventions concerning actions taken by executive authorities have highlighted the delicate balance between state power and fundamental rights. In this context, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Article 21 — Protection against deprivation of liberty only as per the literal 'procedure established by law', without regard to its reasonableness.
2. 2.Doctrine of Judicial Review — Power explicitly defined and enumerated in Article 13 of the Constitution.
3. 3.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India — Principle that the procedure under Article 21 must be 'fair, just, and reasonable'.
4. 4.Section 130, BNSS, 2023 — Confers final and non-justiciable power on Executive Magistrates for preventive action.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only one pair is correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Supreme Court in *Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)* expanded the interpretation of 'procedure established by law' to mean a 'fair, just, and reasonable' procedure, moving beyond the literal interpretation from the *A.K. Gopalan* case. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The phrase 'judicial review' is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. The power is derived implicitly from several articles, including Article 13, 32, and 226. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The *Maneka Gandhi* judgment is a landmark case that incorporated the American principle of 'due process of law' into Article 21 by interpreting 'procedure established by law' expansively. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The powers of an Executive Magistrate under the BNSS (or the earlier CrPC) are subject to judicial review and must be exercised in conformity with fundamental rights and orders from higher courts. They are not final or non-justiciable.

The static concept

Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and the Doctrine of Judicial Review as a check on Executive Power.

With reference to the constitutional provisions for special administration and autonomy in India, and in light of recent discussions regarding Ladakh, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution are uniform in their application, granting identical legislative and financial powers to all states mentioned from 371-A to 371-J.
2. 2.Article 371 and its subsequent clauses have historically been applied exclusively to States, and their proposed application to the Union Territory of Ladakh represents a novel constitutional arrangement.
3. 3.Inclusion of a region in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is primarily determined by its status as a Union Territory with a significant tribal population.
4. 4.Laws passed by an Autonomous District Council, established under the Sixth Schedule, on matters like land and customary law require the assent of the Governor to come into force.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect; the provisions under Article 371 and its clauses (A-J) are not uniform but are specifically tailored to the unique needs of each of the twelve states they cover. Statement 2 is correct; these special provisions have historically been for states, so proposing a similar framework for the UT of Ladakh is a new constitutional development. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule is not a general provision for tribal areas in UTs but is specifically applicable to the administration of tribal areas in four states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Statement 4 is correct; laws made by Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule on certain specified matters, such as land and social customs, require the Governor's assent to be effective.

The static concept

Article 371 (Special Provisions for States) and Sixth Schedule (Tribal Areas Administration) as pillars of India's asymmetric federalism.

Recent studies on the genetic diversity of disease vectors like Aedes aegypti have highlighted the complex interplay of biological and anthropogenic factors in disease transmission. In this context, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Knockdown resistance (kdr) — Genetic mutations in mosquitoes conferring insecticide resistance.
2. 2.National Center for Vector Borne Disease Control (NCVBDC) — Nodal agency under MoHFW for surveillance and control of dengue.
3. 3.Permethrin — Primary pyrethroid insecticide used in India's national vector control program.
4. 4.Anthropogenic factors — Secondary driver of Aedes aegypti genetic diversity, after climatic factors.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct. Knockdown resistance (kdr) refers to specific genetic mutations in the voltage-gated sodium channel of insects, like the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which make them resistant to pyrethroid insecticides. Pair 2 is correct. The National Center for Vector Borne Disease Control (NCVBDC), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), is the central nodal agency for the prevention and control of vector-borne diseases in India, including dengue. Pair 3 is incorrect. While resistance to permethrin has been detected in Aedes aegypti populations in India, it is not a primary or routinely used insecticide in the current national vector control program. This makes the description misleading. Pair 4 is incorrect. Recent research, particularly from ICMR, indicates that human activities (anthropogenic factors) like urbanization and transport are the biggest or primary drivers shaping the genetic diversity of Aedes aegypti in India, not secondary to climatic factors.

The static concept

Vector-borne diseases: Epidemiology, control strategies, insecticide resistance mechanisms, and the institutional framework in India (e.g., NCVBDC).

Why this answer

Both statements are independently correct, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion. Assertion (A) is correct; the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) case held that the presiding officer's decision under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. Reason (R) is also correct; if a legislator accepts a bribe to defect, it is an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Offences under this Act are listed as 'predicate offences' in the schedule of the PMLA, 2002, thus triggering its provisions. However, the basis for judicial review of the Speaker's decision is the quasi-judicial nature of the power, not the potential for a separate criminal investigation under PMLA.

The static concept

Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) and its judicial interpretation; Linkages with anti-corruption laws like the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.

Why this answer

Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. The GST Council, under Article 279A of the Constitution, has the power to make recommendations on various aspects of GST, including special rates or cesses for specific purposes. The GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, which levied a Compensation Cess, is a prime example of this power in action. This mechanism can be used for other objectives, such as public health, if the Council recommends and Parliament legislates it. Reason (R) is false because the introduction of GST did not lead to the 'complete' subsumption of all cesses. Several cesses, most notably the GST Compensation Cess itself, continue to exist. Others, like the National Calamity Contingent Duty (NCCD) on products like tobacco, are levied over and above GST. The word 'complete' makes the statement factually incorrect.

The static concept

Goods and Services Tax (GST): Structure, powers of the GST Council (Article 279A), and the concept of Cesses under the Indian taxation system.