Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 9 September 2026

The persistence of gender-based disparities in health outcomes, such as a higher under-five mortality rate for girls than for boys in India, often necessitates targeted state interventions. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India most directly empowers the State to make special provisions for women and children to address such inequalities?

Why this answer

The correct answer is Article 15(3). While Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on grounds of sex, Article 15(3) serves as an exception, explicitly empowering the State to make 'any special provision for women and children'. This clause is the constitutional foundation for laws and schemes aimed at positive discrimination to ameliorate the disadvantaged position of women and children, such as maternity benefits or schemes to improve girls' health. Article 14 provides a general right to equality, but Article 15(3) is the specific enabling provision for this type of affirmative action. Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability, not gender-based provisions.

The static concept

Article 15 of the Constitution — Prohibition of discrimination and enabling provisions for affirmative action for women, children, and backward classes.

With reference to the fiscal framework of India, which statement best explains the distinction in the treatment of revenues from cesses levied for a specific purpose versus general tax revenues?

Why this answer

The correct statement is the one explaining that cess revenues are earmarked for specific purposes. While all government revenues, including cesses, are first credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), cesses are meant to be transferred to specific reserve funds (often maintained under the Public Account) for their designated purpose. This is in contrast to general tax revenues, which are un-earmarked and can be used for any public expenditure approved by Parliament. The option stating cesses are part of the divisible pool is incorrect as Article 270 excludes them. The option suggesting cesses bypass the CFI is procedurally wrong. Finally, the claim that expenditure approval is identical is false because withdrawals from the Public Account do not require an Appropriation Act, unlike withdrawals from the CFI.

The static concept

Articles 266, 270 & 271: Consolidated Fund of India, Public Account of India, and the distinction between taxes, cesses, and surcharges in the context of fiscal federalism.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the strategic context of the Chabahar Port project, a key area of cooperation between India and Iran?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately captures the core strategic rationale for India's investment in Chabahar Port. The port is crucial for providing a sea-land access route to Afghanistan and the broader Central Asian region, bypassing Pakistan. Furthermore, it is a key component of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multi-modal network aimed at connecting India with Russia and Europe. The option concerning NDB financing is incorrect; funding is through direct Indian investment and a Line of Credit. The governance is based on a 2024 bilateral agreement between India and Iran, not an older tripartite one with Russia. Lastly, the US sanctions waiver is not permanent or unconditional but a subject of complex and ongoing diplomatic negotiations.

The static concept

India's 'Act West' Policy and Regional Connectivity Initiatives (Chabahar Port, INSTC).

The Indian Space Policy 2023 aims to restructure the country's space ecosystem by defining distinct roles for various entities. In this context, which one of the following statements most accurately describes the primary role assigned to a key institution?

Why this answer

The statement describing ISRO's role is the only correct one. The Indian Space Policy 2023 explicitly mandates ISRO to transition out of routine manufacturing and operational launch services to focus on advanced R&D, new technologies, and strategic missions like planetary exploration and human spaceflight. The statement about IN-SPACe is incorrect because it is a single-window agency for both government and Non-Government Entities (NGEs), not exclusively for the private sector. The statement about NSIL is incorrect as it misattributes the policy formulation and international cooperation roles of the Department of Space (DoS) to NSIL. Finally, the statement about the Department of Space is incorrect; its role is policy oversight, while commercial manufacturing is the mandate of NSIL.

The static concept

Indian Space Policy 2023: Redefined roles of ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL for private sector participation and strategic focus.

With reference to India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), which has gained attention due to international recognition, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The legal framework for the CCTS is primarily derived from the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. 2.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) acts as the direct administrator of the scheme, overseeing its day-to-day operations.
3. 3.The scheme is designed with a dual-track framework, incorporating both a mandatory compliance mechanism for certain sectors and a voluntary offset mechanism.
4. 4.Recognition of India's CCTS by mechanisms like the UK's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) allows Indian exporters to get relief on carbon taxes, preventing double pricing on emissions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 3 is correct as the CCTS indeed operates on a dual-track framework with both compliance and voluntary mechanisms. Statement 4 is also correct; the purpose of recognizing a country's carbon pricing scheme under a CBAM is to provide relief on import levies, thus avoiding the double taxation of carbon emissions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the legal basis for CCTS is the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, as amended in 2022, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the administrator of the CCTS, not the MoEFCC directly, which has a broader oversight role through the National Steering Committee.

The static concept

India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS): institutional framework, legal basis, and its role in national climate mitigation strategy and international carbon markets.

With reference to key United Nations human rights mechanisms and declarations, which have gained prominence in discussions on regional conflicts, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.UN Special Rapporteur — Independent expert serving in a personal capacity
2. 2.Mandate of a Special Rapporteur — Maximum renewable tenure of eight years
3. 3.UDHR Article 26 — Parents' prior right to choose the kind of education for their children
4. 4.Universal Declaration of Human Rights — Legally binding international treaty

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct as Special Rapporteurs are independent experts appointed by the UN Human Rights Council who serve in their personal capacity and are not UN staff. Pair 3 is also correct, as Article 26(3) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) explicitly states that 'Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children.' Pair 2 is incorrect because the mandate for a Special Rapporteur is for a three-year period, renewable once, making the maximum tenure six years, not eight. Pair 4 is incorrect because the UDHR is a non-binding declaration that serves as a common standard of achievement; it is not a legally binding treaty, although many of its principles have become part of customary international law.

The static concept

UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC) and its Special Procedures (like Special Rapporteurs); Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) and its legal status.

Recent investigations into cross-border activities have brought the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, into focus. In this context, consider the following statements regarding the Act:

1. 1.The definition of a 'terrorist act' under the UAPA is strictly limited to acts that result in the death of any person or cause significant damage to property.
2. 2.The Act includes provisions that can be invoked for acts of cyber-terrorism, such as unauthorised access to a computer resource that threatens the nation's security.
3. 3.Offences under the UAPA can only be investigated by the National Investigation Agency (NIA), to the exclusion of state police forces.
4. 4.Under the UAPA, bail cannot be granted if a court is of the opinion, based on police reports, that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accusation is prima facie true.
5. 5.The provisions of the UAPA are applicable to foreign nationals who commit an offence under the Act, even if the act is committed outside India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Three statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. The definition of a 'terrorist act' in Section 15 of UAPA is very broad. It includes not only acts causing death or property damage but also those intended to threaten or likely to threaten the unity, integrity, security, economic security, or sovereignty of India or to strike terror in the people. Statement 2 is correct. The broad definition of 'terrorist act' is wide enough to cover acts of cyber-terrorism, especially those that threaten national security by disrupting essential services or critical information infrastructure. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the NIA is a central agency for investigating UAPA cases, state police forces also have the power to register and investigate offences under the Act. Statement 4 is correct. This accurately reflects the stringent bail provision under Section 43D(5) of the UAPA, which places a high bar for granting bail. Statement 5 is correct. Section 1(4) of the Act establishes its extraterritorial jurisdiction, making it applicable to any person, including foreign nationals, who commits an offence punishable under the Act outside India.

The static concept

Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967: India's primary anti-terrorism legislation, covering definitions of unlawful activities, terrorist acts, investigative procedures, and bail provisions.

Recent decisions by some countries to restrict trade with specific territories for foreign policy reasons have highlighted the complex interplay between global trade rules and national interests. In this context, consider the following pairs related to the World Trade Organization (WTO) framework:

1. 1.GATT Article XXI — Allows members to take trade actions deemed necessary for the protection of their essential security interests.
2. 2.Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) — Establishes the core principle of 'National Treatment' for all agricultural products.
3. 3.TRIPS Agreement — Prohibits investment measures that have trade-distorting effects on goods.
4. 4.General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) — Operates on the principle of a 'positive list' for market access commitments.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

There are two correctly matched pairs. Pair 1 is correct. Article XXI of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is the 'Security Exceptions' clause, allowing a WTO member to take any action it considers necessary for the protection of its essential security interests. Pair 2 is incorrect. The core principle of 'National Treatment' is established under GATT Article III, which obligates members to treat imported goods no less favorably than domestically produced goods. The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) primarily deals with rules on domestic support (subsidies), market access, and export competition. Pair 3 is incorrect. This describes the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs), not the TRIPS Agreement. The TRIPS Agreement sets minimum standards for the regulation of various forms of intellectual property. Pair 4 is correct. The GATS operates on a 'positive list' or bottom-up approach, where members explicitly list the service sectors and modes of supply for which they are making market access and national treatment commitments.

The static concept

World Trade Organization (WTO): Core Agreements and Principles (GATT, GATS, TRIPS, AoA, TRIMs) and their specific mandates.

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct, but R does not explain A. Assertion (A) is correct; the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963) codifies the sovereign right of a host state to withdraw its consent for a foreign consular post. Reason (R) is also correct; the 'final status' of Jerusalem is a core contentious issue in the Israel-Palestine conflict, and as a result, most nations have historically maintained their embassies in Tel Aviv to avoid pre-judging the outcome. However, R is not the legal explanation for A. The right mentioned in A is a general principle of international diplomatic law applicable to any country, not a right derived specifically from the political situation in Jerusalem. The situation in Jerusalem is the political context for the *exercise* of this right, not its legal basis.

The static concept

Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963) and the International Legal Status of Jerusalem.