Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 3 September 2026

The Paris Agreement is a landmark international accord on climate change, central to global efforts to mitigate its impacts. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the principal temperature goal of the Agreement?

Why this answer

The correct option accurately reflects the language of Article 2 of the Paris Agreement. The agreement's central aim is to strengthen the global response to climate change by keeping a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius. The other options contain common misconceptions. The agreement is not enforced by automatic economic sanctions. The goal is to limit warming, not halt it entirely and restore pre-industrial levels. Lastly, the 1.5°C target is a critical part of the primary goal, not a secondary or future aspiration.

The static concept

The Paris Agreement (2015): Its core objectives, mechanisms (like Nationally Determined Contributions - NDCs), and legal character under the UNFCCC.

Recent state-level initiatives to manage human-wildlife conflict, such as comprehensive action plans, operate within the legal framework of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. According to the Act, who is the primary statutory authority empowered to permit the hunting of a wild animal that has become dangerous to human life or property?

Why this answer

The correct answer is the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. Under Section 11 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) is the designated authority empowered to permit the hunting of any wild animal (listed in Schedules I to IV) if it poses a threat to human life or property, or is so diseased or disabled as to be beyond recovery. The State Board for Wildlife is an advisory body and does not possess this executive power. The National Board for Wildlife is an apex advisory body at the national level and is not involved in such state-level operational decisions. While the District Magistrate has broad administrative powers, the WPA, 1972 specifically confers this authority on the CWLW.

The static concept

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 — Powers and functions of statutory authorities, particularly the Chief Wildlife Warden in managing Human-Wildlife Conflict.

Which of the following is considered the most immediate cause for the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942?

Why this answer

The correct answer is that the failure of the Cripps Mission was the most immediate cause. The Cripps Mission of March 1942 offered Dominion Status after the war but not the complete independence that the Indian National Congress was demanding. This failure convinced the Congress leadership that the British were not sincere, leading directly to the decision to launch a mass movement. The unilateral decision to involve India in WWII happened in 1939 and was a background cause, not the immediate trigger. The arrest of leaders under 'Operation Zero Hour' was the British government's reaction to the movement's launch, not its cause. The INA's activities were a parallel, important part of the freedom struggle but not the direct trigger for the Congress-led Quit India Movement.

The static concept

Quit India Movement (1942) - Causes, Course, and Significance in the Indian National Movement.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary mechanism and intended outcome of Component-C of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme?

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes Component-C, which focuses on solarizing existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. This allows farmers to use the generated power for their irrigation needs and sell any surplus power to local electricity Distribution Companies (DISCOMs), providing an additional source of income. The option describing new standalone pumps refers to Component-B of the scheme. The subsidy structure mentioned in another option is incorrect; the scheme involves a 30% central subsidy, at least 30% state subsidy, and the remainder from the farmer. Lastly, the scheme is administered by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Agriculture, and it is not a fully grant-funded scheme.

The static concept

PM-KUSUM Scheme and its components, particularly the distinction between Component B and Component C, as part of India's National Solar Mission and renewable energy policy.

With reference to the evolving geopolitical landscape in West Asia, consider the following statements:

1. 1.China is actively seeking to replace the United States as the primary security guarantor in the region by establishing formal military alliances with key powers.
2. 2.India's 'Act West' policy involves a multi-alignment approach, engaging simultaneously with rival states such as Saudi Arabia, Iran, and Israel.
3. 3.The I2U2 grouping, comprising India, Israel, the UAE, and the USA, is primarily focused on cooperation in economic sectors like food security and renewable energy.
4. 4.As part of its strategic engagement, India continues to manage the Chabahar port and remains a significant importer of Iranian oil.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 accurately describes India's 'Act West' policy, which employs multi-alignment to engage with rival powers like Saudi Arabia and Iran. Statement 3 is also correct; the I2U2 grouping is an economic and technology-focused partnership, not a security alliance. Statement 1 is incorrect because China's strategy involves expanding influence through economic means and low-intensity security cooperation, while deliberately avoiding formal military alliances or the role of a primary security guarantor. Statement 4 is incorrect; due to US sanctions, India has ceased oil imports from Iran and has pulled out of the deal to manage the Chabahar port.

The static concept

India's Foreign Policy in West Asia: Balancing strategic interests through multi-alignment, economic corridors (IMEC), and engagement with groupings like I2U2 amidst rising Chinese influence (BRI).

Recent economic data has highlighted the interplay of various macroeconomic indicators. With reference to key economic indicators in India, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Gross Domestic Product (GDP) — Ministry of Finance
2. 2.Wholesale Price Index (WPI) — National Statistical Office (NSO)
3. 3.Consumer Price Index (CPI) — Base Year: 2022-23
4. 4.Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) — A proxy for investment activity

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only one pair is correctly matched. The pair matching 'Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)' with 'A proxy for investment activity' is correct, as GFCF measures the net increase in fixed assets and is a key indicator of investment. The other pairs are incorrect: - GDP data is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not the Ministry of Finance. - WPI data is released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the NSO. - The base year for the current CPI series is 2012. The base year of 2022-23 has been adopted for the new series of GDP and WPI, but not for the CPI.

The static concept

National Income Accounting: Key indicators (GDP, GFCF), Price Indices (CPI, WPI), and the institutional framework for data publication (NSO, DPIIT).

With reference to the inclusion of tenant farmers in agricultural welfare schemes in India, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme, since its inception, has included tenant farmers as beneficiaries, provided they are certified by the respective Gram Sabha.
2. 2.The Model Agricultural Land Leasing Act, 2016, formulated by NITI Aayog, is a central legislation that automatically overrides state tenancy laws to grant tenant farmers access to institutional credit.
3. 3.The Telangana Land Licensed Cultivators Act, 2011, provided for the issuance of Loan Eligibility Cards (LECs) to enable tenant farmers to access bank credit and other subsidies.
4. 4.Access to Minimum Support Price (MSP) procurement for tenant farmers is often conditional upon authorization from the landowner and permission from the respective state government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statement 1 is incorrect. The PM-KISAN scheme was initially tied to land ownership records, thus excluding most tenant farmers. The provision to include them through state-verified databases is a more recent development (Feb 2026), not a feature since its inception. Statement 2 is incorrect. The act formulated by NITI Aayog is a 'Model Act', which serves as a guideline for states to frame their own legislation; it is not a binding central law that automatically overrides state laws. Statement 3 is correct. The Telangana Licensed Cultivators Act, 2011, specifically provisioned for issuing Loan Eligibility Cards (LECs) to provide tenant farmers access to formal credit, crop insurance, and subsidies. Statement 4 is correct. The access for tenant farmers to benefits like MSP is not automatic and is typically subject to conditions such as landowner authorization and specific state government policies. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

The static concept

Agricultural Policy and Land Reforms: Specifically, the challenges faced by tenant farmers in accessing institutional credit, insurance, and government welfare schemes due to lack of land ownership records.

Recent instances of land acquisition for infrastructure projects have brought the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (LARR) Act, 2013 into focus. Consider the following pairs regarding its key provisions:

1. 1.Consent for Public-Private Partnership projects — At least 70% of affected families
2. 2.Social Impact Assessment (SIA) — Exempted for industrial corridors as per a 2015 amendment
3. 3.Compensation for rural land — Market value multiplied by a factor of up to two, plus 100% solatium
4. 4.Definition of 'Affected Family' — Exclusively includes landowners and their legal heirs

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct as the LARR Act, 2013 mandates the consent of at least 70% of affected families for Public-Private Partnership (PPP) projects. Pair 3 is also correct; for rural areas, the market value is multiplied by a factor between 1 and 2, and a 100% solatium is added to this amount. Pair 2 is incorrect because the Land Acquisition (Amendment) Bill, 2015, which proposed exemptions for projects like industrial corridors from SIA, was not passed into law. Pair 4 is incorrect as the Act defines 'affected family' broadly to include not just landowners but also agricultural labourers, tenants, and others whose livelihood is impacted, making the term 'exclusively' false.

The static concept

The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (LARR) Act, 2013, which governs the process of land acquisition in India.

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct, and R provides the correct explanation for A. The core objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is to promote a circular economy by emphasizing resource recovery, refurbishment, and environmentally sound management, making Assertion (A) true. Reason (R) accurately describes the key mechanism to achieve this: a market-based EPR framework with tradable certificates. This system operationalizes the 'polluter pays' principle by making producers financially responsible for the end-of-life management of their products and creates a direct financial incentive for recycling and resource recovery. Therefore, the EPR mechanism is the primary reason why the rules facilitate a transition to a circular economy.

The static concept

E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, focusing on Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) and circular economy principles.

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements. Assertion (A) is correct as Article 22(3)(b) explicitly states that the safeguards available for punitive detention under clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 do not apply to a person arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. Reason (R) is also correct because Article 22(4) indeed provides for an Advisory Board, consisting of persons qualified to be High Court judges, to review detention beyond three months. However, R is not the correct explanation of A. The denial of safeguards mentioned in A is a direct constitutional carve-out established by Article 22(3). The Advisory Board mentioned in R is the alternative, compensatory safeguard mechanism provided for this special class of detention. The existence of the Advisory Board does not cause the exception; rather, they are two distinct components of the constitutional framework for preventive detention.

The static concept

Article 22: Protection Against Arrest and Detention, specifically the distinction between safeguards for punitive detention (Art. 22(1-2)) and preventive detention (Art. 22(3-7)).