Daily quiz archive · 31 August 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 31 August 2026

Of this day’s ten questions, 9 were built from that morning’s news. They are below, with the answers. The rest of the set came from Prelimo’s practice bank and stays in the app, because a bank question can still turn up in a live quiz.

Each question below is followed by the keyed answer, why that answer is right, and the static syllabus concept the question is really testing. Where a question came from a specific news story, that story is linked.

Q1 · Science & Tech · ISRO & Space Missions

Which one of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of Lagrange points and their use in space missions?

  1. AThe Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) allows a spacecraft like ISRO's Aditya-L1 to have a continuous and unobstructed view of the Sun.Correct answer
  2. BIndia's first multi-wavelength space observatory, AstroSat, operates from the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 2 (L2) to study distant celestial sources.
  3. CAll five Lagrange points (L1 to L5) in a two-body system are inherently stable, requiring no fuel for a spacecraft to maintain its position.
  4. DThe James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), located at L2, is primarily designed to create a wide-field map of dark matter and dark energy.

Why this answer

The statement about Aditya-L1 is correct. The Sun-Earth L1 point, located between the Sun and Earth, provides a spacecraft with an uninterrupted view of the Sun, making it an ideal location for a solar observatory. The statement about AstroSat is incorrect; it operates in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not at the L2 point. The claim that all Lagrange points are stable is false; only L4 and L5 are stable, while L1, L2, and L3 are quasi-stable and require periodic station-keeping maneuvers. The statement about the James Webb Space Telescope misrepresents its primary objective; while it can contribute to cosmology, its main goals are to study the early universe, galaxy formation, and exoplanet atmospheres, whereas missions like the Nancy Grace Roman Telescope are specifically designed to map dark matter and dark energy.

The static concept

Lagrange Points: Positions in an orbital configuration of two large bodies where a small object can maintain a stable or quasi-stable position relative to them. Key for space observatories.

From the news: What is the Nancy Grace Roman Telescope?

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q2 · Economy · Capital & Financial Markets

Which one of the following statements most accurately describes a key aspect of the foreign investment framework in India?

  1. AForeign Portfolio Investment (FPI) is primarily regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), while the policy framework for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is set by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).Correct answer
  2. BThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) holds the exclusive authority to formulate policy and grant approvals for both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI).
  3. CAn investment in a listed Indian company is classified as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) if the foreign entity acquires a stake of 5% or more.
  4. DAll Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India, irrespective of the sector, must be made through the government approval route.

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately distinguishes the regulatory roles for FPI and FDI. SEBI is the primary regulator for FPIs, governing their registration and investment norms. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, formulates the consolidated FDI policy. The RBI's role, while crucial, is primarily to ensure compliance with the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). The statement about RBI's exclusive authority is incorrect as policy roles are distributed. The FDI threshold for a listed company is 10% or more, not 5%. Lastly, FDI is permitted through an Automatic Route in many sectors, making the claim that all FDI requires government approval false.

The static concept

Regulation of Foreign Investment in India: Distinctions between Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), and the roles of RBI, SEBI, and DPIIT.

From the news: FPIs turn buyers for second month, invest ₹30,919 crore in August

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q3 · International Relations · India's Bilateral Relations, Treaties & Military

Which of the following statements most accurately describes India's position in the global trade of crude oil and refined petroleum products?

  1. AIndia is one of the world's largest importers of crude oil, yet it is also a leading global exporter of refined petroleum products.Correct answer
  2. BAs the world's third-largest energy consumer, India's role in the global market is almost entirely limited to being a price-taker for crude oil imports.
  3. CWhile India imports crude oil from diverse sources, its exports of refined products are primarily sent to neighbouring South Asian countries under government-to-government agreements.
  4. DIndia's energy diplomacy and international trade in petroleum are exclusively managed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, with other ministries playing only advisory roles.

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately captures India's dual position. India is highly dependent on imports for its crude oil needs (around 85%), making it one of the largest importers globally. Simultaneously, it has significant refining capacity, making it the world's fourth-largest refiner and the second-largest exporter of refined petroleum products. The other options are incorrect. India is not merely a price-taker; its large refining and export capacity gives it influence in product markets. Its refined product exports are global, not primarily limited to South Asia. Finally, India's energy diplomacy is a coordinated effort involving both the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and the Ministry of External Affairs, which has a dedicated Energy Security division.

The static concept

India's Energy Security: Balancing import dependence for crude oil with its strategic position as a global refining and petroleum product export hub.

From the news: India emerges as key petrol supplier to Russia as refinery attacks disrupt fuel supplies

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q4 · Environment · Wetland & Freshwater Ecosystems

With the increasing focus on sustainable urban water management and groundwater recharge in India, which of the following statements most accurately describes the policy and institutional framework?

  1. ASchemes like AMRUT 2.0, implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, aim to make cities 'water secure' by promoting measures such as rainwater harvesting and the development of City Aquifer Management Plans.Correct answer
  2. BThe Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban), a flagship program for universal water supply in towns, is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to ensure convergence with its 'Catch the Rain' campaign.
  3. CThe Atal Bhujal Yojana, a World Bank-funded Central Sector Scheme, is implemented nationwide in all districts classified as 'overexploited' to improve groundwater management through community participation.
  4. DTo ensure national uniformity, water management, including groundwater regulation, is placed under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, enabling Parliament to legislate on mandatory rainwater harvesting.

Why this answer

The correct statement accurately describes the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) 2.0. This scheme is indeed implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with the goal of making cities 'water secure'. A key component is the promotion of rainwater harvesting and the creation of City Aquifer Management Plans. The statement regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is incorrect as it is implemented by MoHUA, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The statement about Atal Bhujal Yojana is incorrect because it is not a nationwide scheme but a pilot project in specific water-stressed areas of seven states. The statement on the constitutional status of water is incorrect; water is a State subject under List II of the Seventh Schedule, not a Concurrent List subject.

The static concept

Urban water resource management: Constitutional provisions (Seventh Schedule), key central government schemes (AMRUT, JJM-U, Atal Bhujal Yojana), and institutional responsibilities.

From the news: Park your car over your open well

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q5 · International Relations · UN & Global Governance

Recent events at nuclear facilities in conflict zones have highlighted the role of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). In this context, consider the following statements regarding the IAEA:

  1. 1.The IAEA Statute was approved by the Statute Conference of the UN and entered into force in the same year, 1956.
  2. 2.The 'Seven Indispensable Pillars for Nuclear Safety and Security' were formulated by the IAEA as general guidelines for all nuclear power plants globally.
  3. 3.According to its Statute, the IAEA is mandated to accelerate the contribution of atomic energy to peace and prosperity, while also ensuring its assistance is not diverted for military purposes.
  4. 4.The IAEA has maintained a continuous on-site presence at the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant since September 2022 to monitor its safety and security.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 3 is correct, as Article II of the IAEA Statute clearly outlines its dual mandate to promote peaceful uses of atomic energy and to ensure this assistance is not used for military purposes. Statement 4 is also correct; the IAEA has maintained a permanent expert mission at the Zaporizhzhia plant since September 2022. Statement 1 is incorrect; the IAEA Statute was approved in 1956 but entered into force in 1957. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'Seven Pillars' were specifically developed as a framework for ensuring nuclear safety and security during an armed conflict, not as general global guidelines.

The static concept

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA): Its statute, mandate for safeguards and safety, and role in international security.

From the news: Ukraine's nuclear plant has lost power supply: IAEA

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q6 · Social Issues · Public Health & Immunization

The public health challenges following natural disasters, such as those recently witnessed in India's neighbourhood, highlight the importance of a robust institutional framework. In this context, consider the following pairs of disaster management bodies in India and their respective heads:

  1. 1.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) — Prime Minister
  2. 2.State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) — Chief Minister
  3. 3.District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) — Chief Executive Officer of Zila Parishad
  4. 4.National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) — Union Defence Minister

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pair
  2. BOnly two pairsCorrect answer
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct: As per Section 3(2)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). Pair 2 is correct: As per Section 14(2)(a) of the Act, the Chief Minister of the state is the ex-officio Chairperson of the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA). Pair 3 is incorrect: The District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) is chaired by the District Collector/District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner, as per Section 25(2)(a) of the Act. Pair 4 is incorrect: The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a specialized force for disaster response that functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.

The static concept

Institutional framework under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, detailing the roles and composition of NDMA, SDMA, and DDMA.

From the news: Nepal struggles to preserve recovered bodies as flood toll touches 788

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q7 · Polity · State Government

The restructuring of urban governance in major cities has brought focus onto the powers and functions of Municipalities under the Constitution. In this context, consider the following statements regarding Municipalities in India:

  1. 1.The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution makes it mandatory for state legislatures to devolve all 18 listed functional items to municipalities.
  2. 2.A municipality reconstituted after being dissolved prematurely continues only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved municipality would have continued.
  3. 3.The State Legislature is empowered by the Constitution to make provisions with respect to the composition and functions of Metropolitan Planning Committees.
  4. 4.The power to dissolve a Municipal Corporation before the expiry of its term is vested exclusively in the Governor, acting on the advice of the State Election Commission.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOnly one
  2. BOnly twoCorrect answer
  3. COnly three
  4. DAll four

Why this answer

Two statements are correct. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 243-U(4) of the Constitution, which specifies that a reconstituted municipality serves only the remainder of the term. Statement 3 is also correct; Article 243-ZE empowers the State Legislature to make laws regarding the composition and functions of Metropolitan Planning Committees. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Twelfth Schedule is enabling and illustrative, not mandatory; states have discretion on devolving functions. Statement 4 is incorrect as the power of dissolution is governed by laws made by the State Legislature and is typically exercised by the State Government, not exclusively by the Governor, and the State Election Commission's role is related to conducting elections, not advising on dissolution.

The static concept

Part IX-A of the Constitution (The Municipalities), particularly Articles 243-W (Powers), 243-U (Duration), 243-ZE (Metropolitan Planning Committee), and the Twelfth Schedule.

From the news: More wards, same workforce: GBA, corporations struggle to deliver on the ground

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q8 · Polity · Fundamental Rights

Recent international reports have brought focus on the constitutional safeguards against discrimination and exploitation in India. In this context, consider the following pairs of Constitutional Articles and the protections they guarantee:

  1. 1.Article 17 — Abolition of Untouchability
  2. 2.Article 15 — Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
  3. 3.Article 23 — Prohibition of employment of children in factories
  4. 4.Article 29 — Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. AOnly one pairCorrect answer
  2. BOnly two pairs
  3. COnly three pairs
  4. DAll four pairs

Why this answer

Only one pair is correctly matched. - The pair 'Article 17 — Abolition of Untouchability' is correct. Article 17 of the Constitution explicitly abolishes 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. - The pair for Article 15 is incorrect. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Equality of opportunity in public employment is guaranteed under Article 16. - The pair for Article 23 is incorrect. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour. The prohibition of employment of children in factories is covered under Article 24. - The pair for Article 29 is incorrect. Article 29 protects the interests of minorities concerning their language, script, and culture. The right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is guaranteed under Article 30.

The static concept

Fundamental Rights (Part III): Specific provisions under Right to Equality (Art 14-18), Right against Exploitation (Art 23-24), and Cultural and Educational Rights (Art 29-30).

From the news: State of exception: on India, the UN CERD report

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.

Q9 · Polity · Federalism & Special Provisions

Assertion (A): Assertion (A): The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), a central statutory body, can exercise jurisdiction over the quality and safety standards of intoxicating liquors.

Reason (R): Reason (R): The subject 'Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods' is placed in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, allowing Parliament to enact a uniform law applicable to all items consumed by people.

  1. ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of ACorrect answer
  2. BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. CA is true but R is false
  4. DA is false but R is true

Why this answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. While 'intoxicating liquors' is Entry 8 on the State List, giving states power over its production and sale, 'Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods' is Entry 18 on the Concurrent List. Parliament, using its power under the Concurrent List, enacted the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. This Act defines 'food' broadly to include any substance intended for human consumption, which covers alcoholic beverages. Therefore, the FSSAI can regulate the quality and safety of liquor, even if its taxation and sale are state subjects. The Reason provides the precise constitutional basis for the Assertion.

The static concept

Seventh Schedule of the Constitution — Division of legislative powers between the Union and the States (Union List, State List, Concurrent List).

From the news: Why the FSSAI is also putting liquor under the scanner

The full Deep Proof for this question — the news angle, the static-dynamic link, the source chapter and an autopsy of every wrong option — lives in the app.