Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 25 July 2026

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 — the statutory framework the Supreme Court has referred to while reviewing the Centre's proposed shift of NEET to a computer-based test — defines certain acts as statutory 'unfair means' in public examinations. Which of the following is explicitly covered under this statutory definition?

Why this answer

The correct answer is that tampering with a computer network or computer resource used for conducting the examination is explicitly covered — the Act's definition of 'unfair means' expressly includes tampering with computer networks or resources, alongside unauthorised access or leakage of question papers/answer keys and tampering with documents for merit lists. A printing error preventing a candidate from producing a physical admit card is an administrative lapse, not an act of unfair means by anyone. A delay by the examining body in declaring results is an administrative failure of the conducting authority, not a criminalised act under the statute. A candidate's request for re-checking of the answer sheet is a normal post-result grievance mechanism, not an offence — none of these three appear in the Act's statutory list of unfair means.

The static concept

Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 — statutory definition of 'unfair means', including cyber-specific offences like tampering with computer networks/resources used to conduct an examination.

India's active pipeline of Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations, including ongoing talks with Israel, has renewed attention on the mechanisms that guard against misuse of tariff concessions once such agreements are implemented. In this context, which of the following best describes the purpose of the Customs (Administration of Rules of Origin under Trade Agreements) Rules, 2020 (CAROTAR)?

Why this answer

The correct description is that CAROTAR, 2020 places the burden of due diligence on the IMPORTER to substantiate a claim of preferential origin under an FTA, so that concessional tariffs are not misused through routing goods via a partner country. The option describing a 'negotiating mandate' confuses CAROTAR with the Terms of Reference / Cabinet approval that precedes talks — that stage happens before an agreement exists, whereas CAROTAR governs post-agreement implementation. The option assigning a role to the RBI is a real institution doing something CAROTAR does not do — the RBI oversees foreign exchange settlement generally, but rules of origin verification sits with Customs under the Ministry of Finance, not the RBI. The option claiming CAROTAR only fixes the tariff-reduction schedule get it backwards: the tariff schedule itself is negotiated and annexed within the FTA text, while CAROTAR's entire function is verifying origin claims — the opposite of having 'no role' in that.

The static concept

India's Free Trade Agreement framework — negotiation lifecycle, and the CAROTAR, 2020 rules-of-origin compliance mechanism that prevents concessional-tariff misuse.

Poor monsoon rainfall has recently pushed wild elephant herds in parts of the Western Ghats to alter their usual forest-interior movement and forage closer to human settlements. In the context of ecosystem structure, elephants are often described as a 'keystone species' in forest ecosystems. Which of the following best explains this description?

Why this answer

The answer is the megaherbivore option. A keystone species is defined by its disproportionate effect on ecosystem structure and function relative to its own abundance or biomass — elephants earn this label by physically reshaping forest structure (uprooting trees, creating clearings and grasslands) and by long-distance seed dispersal, not by their trophic position. The 'apex of the trophic pyramid' option is wrong: elephants are herbivores (primary consumers), not top carnivores, so their keystone role has nothing to do with topping a food chain. The 'decomposers' option is factually false — elephants are not decomposers; that role belongs to fungi and bacteria. The 'largest standing herbivore biomass / ten per cent law' option states something that may be true of elephant biomass but is irrelevant — the keystone description rests on disproportionate structural impact, not on biomass volume within the energy-transfer chain.

The static concept

Ecosystem Structure & Energy Flow — keystone species / ecosystem engineers: species whose influence on ecosystem structure and community composition is disproportionate to their abundance or biomass.

Recent Enforcement Directorate searches in a cross-border narco-terror funding case have renewed attention on the institutional and legal architecture India uses against terror financing, including financing routed through emerging technologies. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

Why this answer

The correct statement is that the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 widened the schedule of offences the NIA can investigate to include cyber-terrorism and offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908 (alongside human trafficking and prohibited-arms offences) — this is exactly what the 2019 amendment did. The NCORD mechanism is wrong because it is a broad Centre-State coordination body for drug-law enforcement, not a dedicated cyber-forensics unit — 'exclusively' overstates its role. The PMLA/UAPA statement reverses agency roles: PMLA investigations into terror funding are conducted by the Enforcement Directorate, not the NIA, and terrorist designation under UAPA is a Union Government function, not the ED's. The claim that the 2019 NIA Amendment Act first empowered NIA under the NDPS Act is a chronology error — that specific empowerment came via a separate 2020 notification under the NDPS Act, 1985, not the 2019 amendment.

The static concept

Institutional and legal architecture against terror financing — NIA Act, 2008 (as amended 2019), UAPA, 1967, PMLA, 2002, and NDPS Act, 1985 — and the distinct statutory roles of NIA, ED and NCB.

The WHO's AWaRe classification of antibiotics has drawn renewed attention amid global concern over antimicrobial resistance. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The AWaRe framework classifies antibiotics into three groups — Access, Watch, and Reserve — based on their resistance potential and the priority for their preservation.
2. 2.Under this framework, 'Watch' group antibiotics are recommended as the first-choice treatment for common infections because they carry a low risk of resistance.
3. 3.The World Health Organization has set a target for countries to source at least 70 per cent of their antibiotic consumption from the 'Access' group by 2030.
4. 4.Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) is recognised as a 'One Health' concern, since resistant strains can transmit between humans, animals, and the environment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

The answer is 'Only three' — statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct, statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is correct: AWaRe sorts antibiotics into Access, Watch, and Reserve based on resistance risk and the need to preserve effectiveness. Statement 2 is wrong — it is the 'Access' group, not 'Watch', that WHO recommends as first-choice treatment for common infections precisely because of their lower resistance potential; 'Watch' antibiotics carry higher resistance risk and are meant to be used with more caution, for specific indications. Statement 3 is correct: WHO's global target is 70% of consumption from the Access group by 2030, a benchmark India currently falls short of. Statement 4 is correct: AMR spreads across human, animal, and environmental reservoirs, which is why it is framed as a One Health issue.

The static concept

Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) — WHO's AWaRe (Access, Watch, Reserve) antibiotic classification and global stewardship targets.

With reference to India's institutional and regulatory architecture for public health and immunization, consider the following pairs of institutions/programmes and their functions:

1. 1.Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) — National regulatory authority for approving new drugs and vaccines under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
2. 2.National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) — Nodal programme for prevention and control of dengue and other vector-borne diseases
3. 3.WHO Prequalification — Automatically confers marketing authorisation for a vaccine's use in India
4. 4.Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) — Currently includes the dengue vaccine as a nationally funded immunisation
5. 5.National Health Mission (NHM) — Umbrella framework under which disease-control programmes such as NVBDCP function

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

The answer is 'Only three pairs' — pairs 1, 2, and 5 are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correct: CDSCO is India's National Regulatory Authority under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and it is CDSCO's approval (not WHO's) that permits a vaccine's use in India — exactly the step that cleared the dengue vaccine Qdenga. Pair 2 is correct: NVBDCP is the nodal programme specifically for vector-borne diseases including dengue. Pair 5 is correct: NVBDCP operates as one of the disease-control programmes housed under the National Health Mission umbrella. Pair 3 is wrong: WHO prequalification is an international quality-assurance signal, not a marketing authorisation for India — CDSCO's own sovereign approval is still separately required, which is why the news event flagged both steps happening in sequence. Pair 4 is wrong: CDSCO clearing a vaccine for use is a regulatory approval, not automatic inclusion in the nationally-funded Universal Immunization Programme schedule, which is a distinct programmatic decision.

The static concept

Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) as India's National Regulatory Authority under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) under the National Health Mission.

The recent bifurcation of the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs — carving out a dedicated Department of Capital Development for Delhi — has renewed attention on the constitutional and rule-based machinery governing Centre-Delhi administration. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. 1.A new Department, such as the Department of Capital Development, can be created within a Union Ministry through the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, framed by the President under Article 77(3) of the Constitution.
2. 2.Under Article 239AA, the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi has law-making power over all subjects in the State List and the Concurrent List, without any exception.
3. 3.The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021 strengthened the binding nature of the Council of Ministers' aid and advice upon the Lieutenant Governor, bringing Delhi's Lieutenant Governor on par with a State Governor.
4. 4.Any amendment to the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 requires the prior approval of both Houses of Parliament, since it alters the executive structure of the Union Government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

The answer is 'Only one' — only the first statement is correct. Statement 1 is correct: Ministries and Departments of the Union Government are created and reorganised through the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, made by the President under Article 77(3) — exactly the mechanism used to carve out the new Department of Capital Development for Delhi. Statement 2 is wrong: under Article 239AA(3)(a), the Delhi Assembly's law-making power over the State List and Concurrent List explicitly excludes Entries 1 (public order), 2 (police), and 18 (land) of the State List — 'without any exception' overstates it. Statement 3 is wrong: the GNCTD (Amendment) Act, 2021 did the opposite of what it claims — by defining 'government' to mean the Lieutenant Governor in several contexts and mandating the LG's opinion before executive action, it expanded the LG's discretionary role rather than making the LG bound like a State Governor. Statement 4 is wrong: the Allocation of Business Rules are executive rules made and amended by the President's order — they do not require prior approval of either House of Parliament.

The static concept

Article 239AA — special constitutional status of the National Capital Territory of Delhi; Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 framed under Article 77(3).

Rainfall distribution during the current monsoon season has been markedly uneven across India, with several regions running well behind the seasonal average even as other pockets caught up — renewing attention on the atmospheric and oceanic drivers that govern how the Indian Monsoon System performs each year. With reference to such phenomena and their correct characteristic or effect on the Indian Monsoon System, consider the following pairs:

1. 1.Mascarene High — Its strengthening intensifies the cross-equatorial Somali Jet that feeds monsoon moisture into peninsular India
2. 2.Heating of the Tibetan Plateau — Drives the Tropical Easterly Jet in the upper troposphere during the monsoon season
3. 3.El Niño (warm ENSO phase) — Typically associated with above-normal monsoon rainfall over India
4. 4.Positive Indian Ocean Dipole — Can offset the suppressing effect of El Niño on the Indian monsoon
5. 5.Western Disturbances — Deliver the bulk of Indo-Gangetic plain rainfall during the July-August monsoon peak

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Why this answer

Only three pairs are correctly matched. The Mascarene High pair is correct — this subtropical anticyclone over the southern Indian Ocean strengthens the cross-equatorial Somali Jet, the low-level moisture-carrying current that feeds the monsoon. The Tibetan Plateau pair is correct — differential heating of the elevated plateau helps generate the upper-tropospheric Tropical Easterly Jet that supports monsoon circulation over the peninsula. The Indian Ocean Dipole pair is correct — a positive IOD can counteract or offset the monsoon-suppressing influence of a concurrent El Niño, as seen in several recent monsoon seasons. Two pairs are wrong: El Niño (warming of the central-eastern Pacific) is climatologically linked to BELOW-normal, not above-normal, Indian monsoon rainfall — the pair reverses the true relationship. Western Disturbances are extratropical systems that primarily deliver WINTER precipitation to north-west India; they are not the source of the Indo-Gangetic plain's July-August monsoon rainfall, which comes from the monsoon trough and south-west monsoon currents instead.

The static concept

Indian Monsoon System — mechanism and modulating factors: Mascarene High and the Somali Jet, Tibetan Plateau heating and the Tropical Easterly Jet, ENSO/El Niño-La Niña, the Indian Ocean Dipole, and the distinct (non-monsoonal) role of Western Disturbances.

Why this answer

The Assertion is true: VDA service providers (exchanges, custodians) were notified as 'reporting entities' under the PMLA, 2002, so they must follow KYC and file suspicious-transaction reports, bringing anti-money-laundering discipline to crypto transactions. The Reason is false: no single statutory regulator has been designated to license or supervise VDA service providers in India — this is precisely the 'regulatory vacuum' the Standing Committee on Finance highlighted, recommending only an interim Self-Regulatory-Organisation mechanism under oversight of a yet-to-be-designated regulator. Since a true Assertion can stand without a regulator existing (PMLA coverage and prudential licensing are separate legal questions), R does not explain A, and R itself fails as a factual claim.

The static concept

Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 — reporting entity obligations; institutional financial regulation (RBI/SEBI) and the FSLRC's unified-code recommendation.

Why this answer

The answer is 'A is false, but R is true'. The Reason is factually correct: Barak-8/MRSAM is a Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile co-developed by DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries, distinct from the long-range class 'Kusha' targets. But the Assertion is false — 'Kusha' is not primarily meant to substitute for the MRSAM at all; it fills an entirely different, longer-range air-defence layer (comparable to systems like the S-400) that India currently lacks an indigenous option for, rather than displacing an already-inducted medium-range system. Since R is true but does not support the false claim in A, and A itself does not follow from R, the correct choice is 'A is false, but R is true'.

The static concept

DRDO indigenous missile development — layered air-defence architecture by range-class (short/medium/long-range SAMs).