Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims 2027 — 24 June 2026

Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective of the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021?

Why this answer

The primary objective of the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021 was to restore the power of State Governments to identify and maintain their own list of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs). This was necessitated after a Supreme Court ruling interpreted the 102nd Amendment Act as taking this power away from the states. The option stating it granted constitutional status to the NCBC is incorrect; this was done by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018. The option regarding the removal of the 50% reservation ceiling is also incorrect, as the 105th Amendment did not address this issue. The extension of reservations for SCs and STs in legislatures was the objective of the 104th Amendment Act, 2020.

The static concept

Constitutional Amendment Procedure (Article 368) and its application; Federalism and distribution of powers; Reservation Policy.

In May 2024, the United Nations General Assembly passed a resolution granting new 'rights and privileges' to a particular entity and recommending that the Security Council reconsider its full membership request favorably. Which entity was the subject of this resolution?

Which entity was the subject of this resolution?

Why this answer

The correct answer is the State of Palestine. In May 2024, the UN General Assembly overwhelmingly passed a resolution upgrading Palestine's rights as a non-member observer state, granting it more privileges within the assembly, though not the right to vote. The resolution also recommended that the UN Security Council 'reconsider the matter favorably'. The Holy See is also a non-member observer state but was not the subject of this recent resolution. Taiwan lost its UN seat to the People's Republic of China in 1971 and holds no status. Kosovo's bid for UN membership has been effectively blocked in the Security Council and it is not an observer state.

The static concept

United Nations Membership and Observer Status: The process for admitting new members under Article 4 of the UN Charter and the distinct category of 'non-member observer state' established by General Assembly practice.

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, as amended, provides for an 'escape clause' allowing the Central Government to deviate from its annual fiscal deficit targets under specific circumstances. Which one of the following is NOT a valid ground specified in the Act for invoking this clause?

Why this answer

The correct answer is the option describing a cyclical economic slowdown. The amended FRBM Act specifies the grounds for using the escape clause, which include: (i) national security or act of war, (ii) national calamity, (iii) collapse of agriculture, (iv) structural reforms with unanticipated fiscal implications, and (v) a sharp decline in real output growth of at least 3 percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters. A general cyclical slowdown leading to a revenue shortfall, while a significant economic challenge, is not one of the specific, high-threshold grounds explicitly mentioned in the Act for triggering the escape clause.

The static concept

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, and its amendments, particularly the provisions for the 'escape clause' based on the recommendations of the N.K. Singh Committee.

With reference to the evolving jurisprudence of Fundamental Rights in India, particularly in the context of environmental protection, consider the following statements:

1. 1.The Supreme Court of India has recently recognised the 'right against the adverse effects of climate change' as a distinct fundamental right, deriving it from Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.
2. 2.This right was explicitly mentioned in the original text of the Constitution under the Directive Principles of State Policy, and has now been elevated to a fundamental right.
3. 3.The recognition of this right is an extension of the pre-existing judicial interpretation that the 'Right to Life' under Article 21 includes the right to a clean and healthy environment.
4. 4.Being a fundamental right, the right against the adverse effects of climate change is absolute and cannot be subjected to any reasonable restrictions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, making 'Only two' the right answer. Statement 1 is correct. In a landmark 2024 ruling related to the Great Indian Bustard (*M.K. Ranjitsinh & Ors. v. Union of India*), the Supreme Court affirmed the 'right against the adverse effects of climate change' as a fundamental right, flowing from Article 21 (Right to Life) and Article 14 (Right to Equality). Statement 3 is correct. This new right is a logical progression of earlier Supreme Court judgments (e.g., *M.C. Mehta cases*) which established that the Right to Life under Article 21 is not mere animal existence but includes the right to a clean and healthy environment. Statement 2 is incorrect. This right is a product of recent judicial interpretation. While Article 48A (DPSP) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty) deal with environmental protection, the specific 'right against adverse effects of climate change' was not mentioned in the original Constitution. Statement 4 is incorrect. Like most Fundamental Rights, this right is not absolute. It must be balanced against other rights and considerations, such as the need for sustainable development. The court itself acknowledged the need for a balance between environmental protection and national developmental goals.

The static concept

Judicial Interpretation and Expansion of Fundamental Rights, particularly Article 14 (Right to Equality) and Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).

With reference to 'Blue Carbon' and its associated ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. 1.Blue carbon refers to the carbon dioxide sequestered and stored long-term in coastal and marine ecosystems, primarily mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows.
2. 2.On a per unit area basis, blue carbon ecosystems can sequester carbon at a rate significantly higher than most mature terrestrial forests.
3. 3.The European Union's Nature Restoration Law, a recent landmark legislation, mandates the restoration of all degraded marine ecosystems within its member states by 2040.
4. 4.Coral reefs and kelp forests are officially classified as the most significant blue carbon ecosystems due to their high biomass density and calcification processes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Why this answer

There are two correct statements. Statement 1 is correct, as it provides the standard definition of blue carbon and correctly identifies the three principal ecosystem types: mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows. Statement 2 is also correct; these coastal ecosystems are highly efficient carbon sinks, sequestering carbon in their soils and sediments at rates many times higher per hectare than typical terrestrial forests. Statement 3 is incorrect; the EU's Nature Restoration Law aims to restore at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030, not 'all' ecosystems by 2040. Statement 4 is incorrect; while coral reefs and kelp forests store carbon, they are not considered primary blue carbon ecosystems because their capacity for long-term sequestration in sediments is significantly lower than that of mangroves, salt marshes, and seagrasses.

The static concept

Blue Carbon: Carbon sequestration in coastal and marine ecosystems (mangroves, salt marshes, seagrass beds) and its role in climate change mitigation.

Why this answer

Both the Assertion and the Reason are factually correct, and the Reason provides the primary strategic context for the Assertion. The India-EFTA TEPA, signed in March 2024, indeed contains a first-of-its-kind commitment for EFTA to promote $100 billion in investments and facilitate the creation of 1 million jobs in India. This makes the Assertion true. The Reason is also true; India has a substantial trade deficit with EFTA, with Switzerland alone accounting for a significant portion due to imports of gold, machinery, and pharmaceuticals. A key objective for India in these negotiations was to ensure that the agreement's benefits were reciprocal and went beyond mere tariff reductions, which could have widened the deficit. Therefore, securing a large, binding investment commitment was a strategic move to counterbalance the trade deficit, making the Reason the correct explanation for the Assertion.

The static concept

India's Foreign Trade Policy: Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs), and strategies for managing trade deficits.

Why this answer

The Assertion (A) is a correct statement of fact. Article 93 of the Constitution explicitly provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 'as soon as may be'. The Reason (R) is false. The practice of offering the Deputy Speaker's post to the opposition is a parliamentary convention, not a 'constitutional requirement'. The Constitution is silent on the political affiliation of the Deputy Speaker. Equating a convention with a constitutional mandate makes the entire statement incorrect. Therefore, A is true but R is false.

The static concept

Parliamentary System: Roles of Presiding Officers (Speaker/Deputy Speaker) and the distinction between Constitutional Provisions (Art. 93) and Parliamentary Conventions.